Can anyone give me some ACADEMIC insight into why a woman might kill a 10 yr old deaf boy (not her child)? I'm assessing a fictious crime for my coursework...
2007-02-25 07:04:24 · 5 answers · asked by Belle 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
This is in reference to Jude's comment... I know the theories.. I'm a third yr undergrad. I'm looking for opinions. I have three text book in front of me telling me what academics think. I wanna know what the population thinks thank you.
2007-02-25 08:35:32 · update #1
And also in response to her comment I'd like to point out again NOT her child....
2007-02-25 08:36:45 · update #2
I'm going to agree with Mr.Sceptic on this one.
Considering he is 1) not her child and 2) older than 12months, infanticide would not apply in this situation.
So in this case, there are a number of factors which need to be considered and taken into account. Is she a family member? Someone with a fiduciary duty to him such as a teacher or his physician? Or was there no prior relationship between them?
You said she killed him, this does not mean murder. (Which would require an intention to kill or cause serious injury) Possible other explanations could include, but are certainly not limited to:
- a non intentional act (ie. was she reckless or negligent)?
- an act of euthanasia
- for religious or cultural reasons
- possibly in self-defence or in defence of another (ie. her own child) Was she provoked? It would be presumptuous to assume just because the child is 10 and deaf that he is not capable of harming another.
- What was her mental state? Did she know what she was doing was wrong (if it were intentional)? Was she suffering from a psychological disease? If so, had she stopped taking her medication causing her to be uncharacteristically violent or reckless?
- Was she suffering from a disease of the mind that caused her to act involuntarily (ie. Insane Automatism, ie. An epileptic fit which caused her to harm him unintentionally)? Or was her act caused by an outside event? (Non-insane automatism. ie. she was stung by a bee which caused her to lose control of the vehicle and hit the child as he crossed the street.)
It is my personal opinion that while not yet widely accepted academically (mainly because this area is only now beginning to be researched further) women have the same ability and reasons for killing as men. While it is true some acts of violence are far more prevelant amongst the different genders, each have the capacity to act with malice, recklessness or negligence.
Hope this was insightful.
2007-02-25 11:10:14 · answer #1 · answered by Chloe M 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well thats a strange question...but she is either related to the childs mother who might be going through post-natal depression or shes been assigned for it. Everyday lots of mothers go through post-natal depression its natures way. Intersting crime.
Its very hard to say because u havent put the status of the woman or the boy.
2007-02-25 15:10:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Interesting that when women kill it's due to depressive illness of some sort, but men who kill are evil beasts. Just an observation.
2007-02-25 15:37:13 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
they kill because they are either not in their right minds at the time, or because they don't know how to be a good mother, so they kill their children. also, they do it because they are gooing through a bitter custody battle, they don't want the children to live with their father.
2007-02-25 15:30:41 · answer #4 · answered by Shorty 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do your own homework! For example, research criminology, specifically infanticide by the mother.
2007-02-25 16:09:48 · answer #5 · answered by Jude 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋