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If there is a failure of a condition subject to which the offer was made, then the offer cannot be accepted and therefore no contract. However if a statement is a term of a contract or a misrepresentation then the remedies are different. But how do you get there if the contract was conditional in the first place?

2007-02-23 23:22:49 · 1 answers · asked by MizButterfly 3 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

1 answers

Was the misrepresentation a statement that otherwise induced one to enter into the contract, at which point the conditional provision would come into play?

If yes, then there may still be breach of contract and misrepresnetation claims. Also, there may be tortious interference with contract, etc.

2007-02-24 02:36:03 · answer #1 · answered by Rob B, of MD 4 · 0 0

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