English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

dooes it make sense? why or why not? is his logic philisophicaly refutable??

2007-02-23 21:19:16 · 5 answers · asked by mr i 1 in Arts & Humanities Philosophy

5 answers

From my point of view Descartes basic argument was always the same, my thoughts and perceptions tell me that this is the truth.

I know that what they tell me is true, because they tell me that it is the truth.

This is pretty thin logic from my point of view. I question how he became so well know with such a fragile postulation.

Love and blessings Don

2007-02-24 01:45:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

1) I think, therefore I am.

2) I cannot be mistaken about the ideas that I have.

3) There can never be more objective reality in the effect (i.e., the idea) than there is formal reality in the cause (i.e., object of the idea).

4) I have an idea of perfection or infinite substance.

5) My idea of perfection is the most objectively real idea that I have.

6) The only possible formal cause of that idea is infinite substance.

Therefore, God must exist.

**************

From a pure philosophy standpoint, the first 2 statements essentially say that the universe exists exactly as envisioned by the person who made these "postulations".

Point 2 is the one that has the biggest problem. "I cannot be mistaken about the ideas that I have" is the ultimate in vanity.

Since that point can easily fail, then the points which follow crumble like a house of cards in a hurricane when considered as pure debate points.

Only point 1 can stand on its own merit. All the rest... each depends on the preceding point. Point 2 fails. The logic is obviously flawed.

The fact that the logic is flawed does not in and of itself disprove the conclusion. It just means the conclusion was arrived at in an erroneous manner.

************

Basicly Descartes made the mistake of saying "I am right because I said I am right and if you dissagree then you are by definition... wrong."

2007-02-23 21:32:40 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

It's entirely too subjective. He based his proof of the existence of God on the fact that he, himself, existed. What if someone else came along and questioned his own existence? By Descartes' own standard, you can't base a proof of God's existence on someone who doubts his own existence.

2007-02-24 00:21:33 · answer #3 · answered by kcchaplain 4 · 0 0

We exist, God does not exist, He is.

Big difference!

Maybe, because of language issues, this might not make much of a difference to some people, but when you go deep into this matter, it is something one cannot just dismiss.

2007-02-24 05:01:10 · answer #4 · answered by Alex 5 · 0 0

Well there is no god, so something must be wrong in his proof. Right?

2007-02-23 23:08:11 · answer #5 · answered by Phil Knight 3 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers