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why an equation : 2r cos pi/4...and substituted cos pi/4 with ( squareroot of 2 / 2)..

2007-02-23 19:35:23 · 3 answers · asked by pinkiezbox 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

3 answers

cos pi/4=cos45
=1/sqrt2
If you multiply both numerator and denominator bysqrt2,then
1/sqrt2
=sqrt2/sqrt2*sqrt2
=(sqrt2)/2
so the value of 1/sqrt2 is the same as that of (sqrt2)/2

2007-02-23 23:51:08 · answer #1 · answered by alpha 7 · 0 0

Because cos(pi/4) = sqrt(2)/2

2007-02-24 03:54:00 · answer #2 · answered by Steiner 7 · 1 0

sqrt of 2/2=1, does dat mean sqrt of1 so basically u r substitutiing cos pi/4 with 1.................................y don't u become a bit clearer

2007-02-24 03:49:36 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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