OK.
Let's say I marry a woman who is normal but her mother has bore/had children with defects. Then I have kids with this woman. Are there any chances that I will get defective children just because her mother had defect children except her, the woman I will supposedly have children with?
2007-02-23 18:42:12 · 3 answers · asked by Mutual Help 4 in Pregnancy & Parenting ➔ Pregnancy
You can go and get genetic counseling in advance. It really depends on the "defect" -- for example, cerebral palsy is from children born premature, spinal bifida is from not having enough vitamins, downs syndrome is often from the mother being older. So, the defects might not be genetic. Or, some genetic defects require that you be a carrier. So, if the other children had Tay Sachs or cystic fibrosis, you'd have to have that in your family in order to have children with it. Even if you had the same traits, the chance of having a child with it is only one out of four. In that case, you could also consider getting genetic testing of any fetus and deciding whether to abort the pregnancy. You really need to find out specifically what the defects were.
2007-02-23 19:05:15 · answer #1 · answered by Katherine W 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
if its inherited defects its possible, but if the defects in the other children were because of bad medicine or something else, then its not too likely. sort of a toss up isnt it.
2007-02-24 02:46:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on the defect and if it is hereditary.
2007-02-24 02:56:48 · answer #3 · answered by wendysorangeblossoms 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋