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He said they already owned territories, but I thought they started that in the 1700's. Please someone help, my project depends on it!

2007-02-23 11:15:24 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

I disagree. England was far wealthier and more influential in the middle of the 19th Century. By that time it had developed a vast worldwide empire, seen the decline of the French and Spanish, and established a relatively wealthy and mobile middle class. Perhaps more importantly, they were leading the world in science, philosophy and art (as opposed to the brilliant contributions of Shakespeare, who was after all only one man).

In the 1500s England was still competing with other European powers. By 1850 there was virtually no competition at all.

2007-02-23 12:49:47 · answer #1 · answered by starsonmymind 3 · 1 0

You are right that England reached its peak in the 1500's.
England was at its greatest under Elizabeth I in the latter half of the 16th century.
But in the 1700's the British Empire began to grow and far outstripped the power that England had.
So my guess is that your friend meant England as an independent country, and not as a part of Britain which it was in the 1700's.

2007-02-23 11:36:58 · answer #2 · answered by ccsmall1 2 · 0 1

Nope- ur right. it was the 1700's. The Spanish were the kings of the colonial world in the 1500's

2007-02-23 11:28:32 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For several hunderd years,they were the equivalent to a single,modern superpower.This began to slowly decline
after the Napoleonic wars.
After the Crimean war,the British empire began to crumble,until 100 years later it was a declining state.
It is 34 years since Britain (England,Scotland,Wales and Northern Ireland,or Ulster),joined the European Union.

2007-02-23 11:35:34 · answer #4 · answered by mark t 2 · 0 0

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