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There's a trick that starts out assuming a=b, and ends up showing that 1 = 0. I don't remember the steps inbetween, just that it's invalid because somewhere along the way you divide by zero (a-b). Anybody remember?

2007-02-23 09:37:42 · 5 answers · asked by Mary K 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

5 answers

assume a=b
=> a * a = a * b (Multiply both sides by a)
=> a^2 = ab
=> a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2 (substract b^2 from both sides)
=> (a - b) (a + b) = b (a - b)
=> a + b = b (canceling a-b from both sides)
=> b + b = b
=> 2b = b
=> 2 = 1

NOTE: canceling (a - b ) from both sides is actually dividing by zero.

2007-02-23 09:44:31 · answer #1 · answered by Bhanu M 1 · 1 1

1 is equivalent to 0 mod 1. =]

2007-02-23 09:48:52 · answer #2 · answered by ok buddy 2 · 1 0

yes :
1 = 1

x*1 = x*1

x = x
x - x = 0

(x-x) / (x-x) = 0/(x-x)
1 = 0/(x-x)

1=0 ( since 0 divided by something is always 0 )

2007-02-23 09:55:17 · answer #3 · answered by gjmb1960 7 · 1 0

There argument goes something like this:

1 + infinity = infinity
1 + infinity - infinity = infinity - infinity
Therefore,
1 = 0

The problem with that argument is that infinity minus infinity is not zero. It is undefined.

2007-02-23 09:49:23 · answer #4 · answered by Stan the Rocker 5 · 1 0

WELL, ALL I KNOW IS THAT, 1 IS NOT EQUAL TO 0. WHICH MAKES THAT/YOUR STATEMENT FALSE.

2007-02-23 09:43:44 · answer #5 · answered by Mutual Help 4 · 0 1

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