2007-02-23 07:34:08 · 6 answers · asked by nana m 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
If a = 0 then you only have an imaginary number. . .0 + bi = bi, because +/- 0 can always be disregarded. You don't have a real number.
a is the real part of a complex number. bi is the imaginary part of a complex number. Technically, all real and imaginary numbers are complex; reals simply have b = 0, and imaginaries simply have a = 0.
2007-02-23 07:36:44 · answer #1 · answered by infinitys_7th 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
bi is the imaginary part of the complex number and a is the real part. With a = o, there is only an imaginary part which can not be converted to a real.
2007-02-23 07:37:37 · answer #2 · answered by richardwptljc 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you're pertaining to the proper fee. Ex. If x^2 = 4, then x= 2, -2, yet 4^0.5 is basically equivalent to 2. First convert -a million - #3i into trigonometric type. (r cis ?) enable's set x = -a million and y = -#3. r^2 = x^2 + y^2, r = 2. ? = arctan (y / x), for the reason that x and y are unfavorable, the attitude is located on the 1/3 quadrant. ? = 240 ranges. So -a million - #3i = 2[cos(240 ranges) + i sin(240 ranges)]. utilising DeMoivre's theorem, [2 cis(240 ranges)]^ 0.5 = #2[cis(240 ranges / 2)]. this is, (-#2 / 2) + (#6 /2)i. this is the respond. wish you recognize the reason.
2016-10-01 21:08:25 · answer #3 · answered by balok 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if a= 0 it is apurely imaginary number its real part is just 0
2007-02-23 09:58:22 · answer #4 · answered by santmann2002 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
if a=0 you don't write it
0+3i = 3i
2007-02-23 07:37:36 · answer #5 · answered by Ari 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't know but you really need to do you on home work and study more pay attention in class when the professor is telling you how to do this write it down.
2007-02-23 07:58:41 · answer #6 · answered by Tom Sawyer 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋