buyer and seller have entered into contract for deed. Seller goes to court unbeknownst to buyer to repossess land, 4 years into the contract claiming contract has been broken by buyer. Buyer continues to make payments (for 1 1/2 years) after court has issued petition for ejectment . Seller accepts payments. Doesn't this nullify the petition for ejectment?
2007-02-23 05:55:00 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
No they judge has given possession to the seller. I do not see how they can go to court without the buyer knowing. The buyer is sent notice to appear from the court. Plus the seller usually gives some type of public notice. I have a case where I am accepting payments from the potential buyer after given possession but I am only doing it because they haven't found a place yet and I will not let them stay for free of course. This probably doesn't help you. You might try an attorney to prove that no notice was ever given and prove that the buyer did not break the agreement.
2007-02-24 03:45:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
not in a contract for deed. You should have refinanced this after 1 year into your name solely. If the person you pay does not then yes there can be a foreclosure on the property.
2007-02-23 06:08:38 · answer #2 · answered by golferwhoworks 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋