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2007-02-23 05:03:40 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities History

I ment ones from africa.

2007-02-23 05:22:06 · update #1

12 answers

Native Americans did own slaves. Some of there slaves were Africans as well. African slaves were bartered for as well as traded umongst settlers and natives. No one culture was exempt for the institution of slavery.

2007-02-23 05:48:45 · answer #1 · answered by BionicNahlege 5 · 3 0

Some tribes of native Americans had African Slaves that went to them in a position of servitude and some Africans became family members in certain tribes. In Africa, there was also a system of slavery, but still there should always be remembered that the system of slavery in the Untied States and Europe as far as it's disposition towards Africans was unique in the fact that the brutality exercised and permited with slaves did not exist anywhere else in the world. Slavery as an institution in the states was brutal and all encompassing. In Africa, a slave could not be raped, maimed, beaten, or killed by his owner, and only worked from sun up until two in the afternoon, since the temperature was too hot to work from that time forward. A slave was also given a sort of allowance and if possible would be allowed to purchase his or her freedom. Children of slaves were not automatically born into slavery and if a slave owner mentioned publicly that a freed slave used to belong to him he could be brought to trial and made to answer for that as a crime and if he caused physical harm to his slave. Only Europeans and Americans found it necessary to brutalize human beings under the umbrella of slavery as it was. Also consider the brutal passsage over the sea's packed in like sardines, where many Africans died chained to living Africans. No Native American tribe could have been responsible for that.

2007-02-23 05:17:32 · answer #2 · answered by sustasue 7 · 2 0

The Cherokee nation living in Georgia learned plantation farming from the Europeans, and they indeed had ***** slaves. The treaty signed with the US government just after the civil war required the ending of this practice and the slave ****** were required to be made full citizens of the Cherokee nation as freedmen. As such, they also made the death march to Oklahoma, and show up on government records. Now that the tribes are coming into money, they are attempting to disenfranchise the ***** citizens and has created quite a stir.

2007-02-23 07:29:36 · answer #3 · answered by lare 7 · 1 0

Yes, I live in the Ohio Valley and the Adena Indians and many of the Great Lakes tribes (Hurons, Iroquois, etc) took prisoners and made them slaves. In some cases Indian folklore of a tribe like to say that it was a benevolent situation but other stories indicate that slaves were worked and if food was short in the winter they were killed (not eaten). However, it was relatively easy for native Americans to escape and they needed only to make it another area to be free, whereas, blacks in colonial America had little chance of escaping to anywhere safe until the non slave states were declared.

2007-02-23 05:10:48 · answer #4 · answered by Tom W 6 · 1 0

yes some did, sometimes captives were made into slaves and could be bartered or sold same as white people did with african slaves. depended on the nation that captured them and sometimes the gender or age of the captive, many times children were adopted in to the tribe

2007-02-23 05:10:03 · answer #5 · answered by dances with cats 7 · 0 0

The Aztecs had slaves, the Incas did, the Mayas did. l for labor or vicious sacrifice to their solar Gods. Out in New Mexico, Pre-Columbus circumstances there became no theory of it. It became the Spanish who extra the belief of possessing people as sources. while they time-honored the Encomendia gadget below Juan de Onate. Which legalized the enslavement of nearby peoples and began the slaver marketplace. So then some tribes attacked one yet another to sell slaves to the Spanish, maximum never afflicted attempting to maintain them. The Utes hardly held onto Navajos they abducted they bought them to the Spanish, the Apache never afflicted conserving onto the Pueblos they captured they only bought them to the Spanish, and so on and so on. i would not be waiting to assist you to comprehend pertaining to to the Plains or Northern Tribes as I actual have not studied those components especially.

2016-12-14 04:00:39 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Yes, members of conquered tribes. Raiding other tribes was the main form of population expansion.

2007-02-23 05:15:41 · answer #7 · answered by kellring 5 · 0 0

some of them did. the tribes that conquered the other tribes used some of their people as slaves.

2007-02-23 05:07:12 · answer #8 · answered by marcosmv 2 · 0 0

No. For a long period of time, slavery was considered to be a strictly European invention. Other cultures did have "prisoners" but they were never labeled "living tools" Like Aristotle put it.

2007-02-23 05:12:48 · answer #9 · answered by theocide84 2 · 0 2

Yes, they would occasionally kidnap members of other tribes or enslave members of other tribes after a battle.

2007-02-23 05:07:15 · answer #10 · answered by Tiger by the Tail 7 · 0 0

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