2007-02-23 03:20:35 · 7 answers · asked by msbedouin 4 in Entertainment & Music ➔ Polls & Surveys
The phon part of the word is greek, meaning sound. And we live in a world where people use graphemes, not the IPA, so even the word phonetic has to have a graphemic spelling. Who would recognize fonεtIk (as it would be written in phonetics)?
2007-02-23 03:29:53 · answer #1 · answered by Beth 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Love your question! I also want to know why the word 'lisp' was given to this condition when people with lisps can't pronounce it properly.
2007-02-23 11:26:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
well because 'ph' makes an 'f' so thats just the way it is!
I dont know why they just dont spell it with 'f'! weird!
2007-02-23 11:24:32 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is. Only people who weren't taught phonics and don't know their phonemes think it's not.
2007-02-23 11:24:20 · answer #4 · answered by Chris A 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
makes me think - why is abbreviate such a long word?
2007-02-23 11:25:56 · answer #5 · answered by Jim G 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To confuse stupid people.
2007-02-23 11:25:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
fonetik. There, that's better.
2007-02-23 11:26:35 · answer #7 · answered by comet girl...DUCK! 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋