It shouldn't be, but under the law women are considered equal to children and provided extra protections in respect of this fact.
Consent is consent is consent, but isn't necessarily always consent. Just play it safe, I always wait until the next morning when she's sober for that sort of activity.
2007-02-23 03:46:30
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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This truly depends. If the man takes advantage of her because she is drunk, it might be. For instance, is she coherent enough to actually consent? Maybe she doesn't say "no", but does she say "yes"? If a girl is with a male that she trusts, she gets drunk, then he has sex with her knowing she would not normally have sex with him, I think it would be a compelling case for rape.
2007-02-23 16:45:33
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answer #2
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answered by HarmNone 3
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Legally, no one can give consent while drunk (or otherwise impaired). However, that is not to say that every girl who has a few drinks and goes home willingly with some guy can wake up and use it as a cop-out and claim rape. My boyfriend isn't raping me, for instance, if we get drunk together before having sex.
But if a guy is purposefully taking advantage of a drunk girl--or getting her drunk--in order to have sex with her, then that is rape. If the girl is too drunk to say "no," (or yes or anything else), doesn't know what's going on while the sex occurs, or is passed out during intercourse, it's definitly rape!
2007-02-23 05:20:51
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answer #3
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answered by lizzgeorge 4
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I would say that it is not rape, because the woman did give consent. The fact that she was drunk was by her own making. Now if someone spiked her drink, unknown on her part, which causesd her to get drunk, that's a different story. Same goes with those "date-rape" drugs.
2007-02-24 09:41:03
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answer #4
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answered by frenchy62 7
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No, but it IS rape if a man intentionally gets a woman drunk because he knows she wouldn't consent while sober, or if she's so drunk that she cannot give consent (i.e., passed out or very close to it).
2007-02-23 04:02:32
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answer #5
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answered by stormsinger1 5
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No, it's not. Unless she was passed-out drunk, and the guy was like "can I have sex with you?" and she murmured something with puke coming out of her mouth and stuff and he thought he heard a vague "yes." But then, I think most guys are smart enough not to think that is really consent.
Other than that, if a woman is drunk and wants to have sex, then nope, it's not rape... why are you confused about this???
2007-02-23 04:05:12
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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why do you think so many women GET drunk? so they can have casual sex, or "go all the way on a first date", or whatever, and later can use being drunk as their excuse. however, i would NEVER try to get a woman drunk just so she would have sex with me, to me, THAT would still be a form of rape.
2007-02-25 22:39:43
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answer #7
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answered by berkly m 2
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Precaution: If woman can't stand alone, has slurred speech has peed on herself or has released some other bodily function, or if she is just generally passed out reeking of alcohol, don't risk her waking up finding your sperm inside of her, run, run like the wind and then questions like this won't have to be considered.
2007-02-26 21:28:28
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answer #8
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answered by Bethy4 6
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Legally, yes. Wouldn't the best option be to wait until she's sober? If they only to get women to have sex is to get them drunk then this guy may want to re-consider his approach.
2007-02-23 10:53:52
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answer #9
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answered by moose 2
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No. How should I know if she's drunk or not? I'm not Superman, I could think she's always like that and it's her normal state. Some people always act like they're drunk.
2007-02-23 03:46:46
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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