5 chips numbered 1,2,3,4,5 are in a line. whats the probability that the 5 digit number is a multiple of 6?

Question

oops sorry my bad this one makes more sense

Answer 1

For a number to be a multiple of 6, it has to be divisible by both 2 and 3. All of the combinations will be divisible by 3 because the sum of the numbers is 15 which is divisible by 3. Only those combinations with 2 or 4 at the end will be divisible by 2. That means there are 2 chances in 5 that the combination will end in an even number and be divisible by 2.
p=2/5=0.4

Answer 2

I'm sort of guessing, but I'll say 2 out of 5.
Multiples of six are also multiples of 2 and 3. Any combination is a multiple of 3 since the sum of the digits is 15, a multiple of 3, but only when the 5 digit number ends in 2 or 4 will it be a multiple of 2, so I'm not sure if it's exactly 2 out of 5, but hopefully this helps.

Answer 3

To be divisible by six
First, the last digit must be even,
Sum all all the numbers are divisible by 3
1+2+3+4+5 is divisble by 3,

which leaves only 1 rule to satisfy, the last number must be even.
probability of the last digit being even is 2/5

Answer 4

employing factorial to slove. _ _ _ _ _ u have 5 chips to %. the 1st 4 may be any of a million to 5 and isn't any longer repeateable. meaning, 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x _ ( the variety 5,4,3,2, are the kind of chip savailable, no longer communicate over with chips variety a million to 5.) and the final one must be 6 yet u dont have 6 with u. for this reason 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 0= 0 oh yeah....u have been given 0 result to obtain a blend variety which end with 6!!!

Answer 5

There are 5! possible numbers, but since 6 = 2*3, only even numbers qualify. However, since the sum of the digits is divisible by 3, all even combinations are also divisible by 6.

Answer 6

Stop posting this ...it doesn't make any sense!