In our homeowners association, there are elections coming up. And both a husband and wife are on the ballots. Is this legal? I called the property management says they checked and it is, but I thought only 1 per household, or that the owners would be the individual whose home is on the deed and only that person.
2007-02-22 13:40:25 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
It is abolutely legal. The problem is there are yet to be any set established laws on HOAs. Trust me, I've seen this. My mom lives in a gated community where two families literally control all the offices of the HOA.
2007-02-22 15:45:24 · answer #1 · answered by BeachBum 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the indivudual homeowners association. Where I live its determined by number of properties owned. If you own only one property, then only one household member my be on the board, but if they own two properties, 2 members can run for a seat on the board. Read the guidelines of your association very carefully for loop-holes and contridictions in their laws.
Getting so homeowners associations have waaaay to much power these days. One household shouldn't have a monopoly on how that power is distributed.
2007-02-22 13:46:24 · answer #2 · answered by bakfanlin 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Husband and wife should represent only one (1) household in the homeowners association. They cannot run as individual candidates in an election of the officers of the association.
2007-02-22 13:44:41 · answer #3 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Unless the CCR"S and bylaws of the Owner's association specifically state they can't, there is no LAW that would forbid it.
Most states have pretty loose laws about who may comprise an HOA board other than requiring they are actually owners of property.
2007-02-22 13:44:44 · answer #4 · answered by wizjp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Welcome to the dysfunctional international of institutions. There are not any State oversight of institutions. There are not any businesses or businesses which will preserve you in any respect. Your in effortless words recourse is to get the phone e book and employ a criminal specialist which will cost you tens of thousands of money and quite a few different years time. i'm able to assure you that regardless of in the journey that your association has left out their own governing files and the final guidelines of the State (which they do automatically) you'll nevertheless LOSE IN courtroom. The AARP, ACLU and quite a few different States Departments of client Affairs has determined that institutions are "Profoundly intolerant and undemocratic" I belong to a collection of voters in Massachusetts that are trying to modify the guidelines to guard resources vendors. a really insidious foyer fights us at each turn (with chapters in each State) The community institutions Institute does no longer characterize resources vendors....they characterize the provider vendors to institutions (study, attorneys) who take advantage of the conflict to conventional in those newbie run businesses. So for now, be VERY careful at the same time as confronting your board, they could take you to the cleaners for little to no reason.
2016-12-04 19:56:15 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I depends on your homeowners association contract/agreement.
There is no law that says they can't, it would be in the association bylaws...
2007-02-22 13:48:52 · answer #6 · answered by JackJester 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
by haveing two from the same household puts favortism on your board. As an American citizen I say ONLY ONE per household. to keep any votes legal.
2007-02-22 13:47:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no it is not it is called collusion and should not be tolerated. find out who the master association is (usually the developer) and inform them of this
2007-02-22 13:51:09 · answer #8 · answered by milton b 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
i would think it would be ok...
2007-02-22 13:42:56 · answer #9 · answered by hung like chuck norris 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋