Why the victorious United States needed to pay Spain $20 Million after winning the Spanish-American War?

Question

This is somewhat an illogical move for the US.What's the money for?

The Gadsden purchase was conducted by the United States and Mexico (not Spain),the treaty signed by President Pierce on June 24,1854 (way earlier than the Spanish-American War,1898) for $10 Million.

Source: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gadsden_Purchase

Answer 1

See, under international law, you couldn't just take some country's land just like that. In order to obtain that land, the US had to pay 20 million moolah to Spain, to get the Gasden Purchase land. Unfair? Not exactly. Spain had to accept the price that the US had offered and give the land even if it didn't want to since it lost the war. Also $20,000,000 is a largely reduced price, since the US won.

Answer 2

Okay seroiusly folks mexico was it's own sovergin nation , i mean hello the signatures on the purchase are James Gadsden,
assigned buy then war sectrtary Jefferson Davis. And the other
signature Santa Anna ring a bell??? Oh hell, lets just say the underscore of his signature says "president of mexico".

By the way I think back it was also against " international law"
which was fist adopted in 1911 by the leauge of nations. 1853??
might be a little early there.

the 20 million in question was put up by andrew carnige for the purchase of the phillipines. Duh.

Answer 3

It was for the Gadsden Purchase.