One of the fundamental postulates of General Relativity is the Principle of Equivalence, which states that it is impossible to distinguish, by any physical means, between the effects of acceleration and the effects of a gravitational field... since we cannot distinguish between the effects, is it a reasonable leap to say that they could be regarded as the same or is there some important difference that makes them unique from one another?
I know it hardly makes sense, but I cannot seem to make myself understand why they would be regarded as different things at all... can somebody please clear this up for me?
2007-02-22
07:05:22
·
3 answers
·
asked by
jason
2
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Physics