2007-02-22 06:24:13 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
hi
the feud between the two families (montague and capulet) played a big part in their deaths, also when the prince of verona declared that anyone who disturbs the peace will be killed, this indirectly contributed to their deaths - after romeo kills tybalt he should have been killed, but is then sentenced to exile.
outside influences played one of the biggest roles in the death of both romeo and juliet. the other characters (friar, nurse, capulet and montague, tybalt) also plays a big role in the double suicide.
2007-02-22 06:32:24 · answer #1 · answered by flounder 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Essentially the death of both romeo and juliet comes down to the feud between their families. The tumultuous state of their families bring about the uncertainty of their relationship. Also, they are unsure who to trust, and the message they each receive is through word of mouth through a third person, and in order to protect each other, they end up each being killed. (when romeo takes the poison wrong, and juliet then stabs herself)
hope i was clear. ...? have a look at www.sparknotes.com for more help with the play....
2007-02-22 06:35:25 · answer #2 · answered by farz_b 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you could no longer say Romeo and Juliet are in charge. The feud and, somewhat, Capulet's blind aggression (see Act 4) are what reason their deaths - that is stupid to assert that is their very own fault. the factor of this play is that Romeo and Juliet can not be in charge for his or her very own lives.
2017-01-03 08:45:10 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Entirely, Juliettes note doesn't get to Romeo so he doesn't know she will revive and kills himself, and obviously when she awakes she does the same, if he had got that note it may well have had a happy ending, for them anyway.
2007-02-22 06:37:58 · answer #4 · answered by CHARISMA 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Family rivalry, gangland tensions, religious and class influences.
2007-02-22 06:32:52 · answer #5 · answered by kenjinuk 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is entirely predicated on the "ancient grudge" of "two families, both alike in dignity".
2007-02-23 01:07:15 · answer #6 · answered by darestobelieve 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Read the play.
People shouldn't be responding to questions like this where some ignorant kid just wants their homework done for them.
There's more to life than 'cut-and-paste'.
2007-02-26 04:26:25 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋