Builders'
The sentence assumes there is more than one builder producing waste.
2007-02-22 05:06:19
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answer #1
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answered by Well, said Alberto 6
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Builders' waste,. the apostrophe comes AFTER the word because the waste belongs to the builders. If it came BEFORE, (which it wouldn't, ever,. .for grammatical reasons),. it'd imply the builder is,.. or builder was,....
So a correct way to look at it would be - "The builders' waste filled the corner of the site".
2007-02-22 12:58:08
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answer #2
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answered by wildimagination2003 4
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Builder's
2007-02-22 12:53:24
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answer #3
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answered by closetmeateater 2
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Very definately AFTER the s - 'builders' waste' . That indicates the word is a plural.If the waste was coming from just one builder it would be 'buider's waste'
Hope that clarifies everything.
2007-02-22 14:46:02
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answer #4
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answered by Safety First 3
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In this context it's obviously more than one builder. So the answer is builders'
2007-02-22 13:25:36
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answer #5
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answered by x || Cara || x 2
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if there are more than one builder then it goes after since they are all being referred to. if there is only one builder then it goes before the s because only one builder can show ownership for the waste and gravel
2007-02-22 12:54:34
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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builders'. It's plural because if it was a single builder then "a" builder's waste would be correct.
2007-02-22 13:01:18
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answer #7
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answered by healing wings 5
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You've got a choice. Builder's is singular, builders' is plural, and either would fit in this context.
2007-02-22 17:08:40
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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if it is one builder then in is the "builder's waste"... if it is lots of builders then it is "builders' waste"..
I think that is right but the more I think about it the more i get confused... that was my first instinct anyway.
2007-02-22 13:00:09
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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after the s i think as it is waste and gravel which belongs to builders - but it doesn't if it's for sale so i'm a bit confussed x
2007-02-22 12:55:45
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answer #10
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answered by aria 5
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