2007-02-21 21:35:21 · 3 answers · asked by standby2@btinternet.com 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ Other - Taxes
Quite possibly, depends on what the particular rights attached to the shares are and whether they are transferrable to the holder.
If you are holding them for someone else then you would be a power of attorney and if the person is deceased then you would need the authority to hold them, ie, be next of kin or name in a will to do so.
2007-02-21 21:45:31 · answer #1 · answered by woof 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
A shareholder is the owner of the shares. There's no difference between the terms. Anyone who owns shares of stock in a company is called a shareholder.
2007-02-22 01:33:37 · answer #2 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This can only happen if they're bearer bonds. Otherwise, the holder and owner must be the same person. (Unless you've stolen the certificate!)
2007-02-25 09:57:39 · answer #3 · answered by Do not trust low score answerers 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋