OK, so whatever I "mix my labour with" is my property, but what, in Locke's terms, happens to my parents' property when they die? I didn't mix my labour with their property, so what right have I to inherit it?
If I do inherit, doesn't that reveal an entrepreneurial streak in the normally conservative Locke?
2007-02-21 20:57:43 · 1 answers · asked by bonshui 6 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
It is generally assumed that the lack of direct comment on this subject is a result of the idea that the children will have mixed their labor with that of their parents as soon as they are able. Much like children on a farm yearly get more chores so to does locke think the same would happen with all enterprise.
Thus, his theory does justify inheritance IF the children have mixed their labor. Otherwise, it should ( assumeing the child has grown, and is not wishing to mix his labor with the father(sic mothers) enterprise) go to those who would spend their time on it.
2007-02-21 21:20:45 · answer #1 · answered by Tom 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋