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When people divorce, the woman or the man gets half of the assets right?

So say I had $1,000,000 dollars in the bank and I met some chick and got married. In this scenario, we both have full time jobs and no kids.

Say a year later we get pissed at each other and divorce. Does this mean that she gets $500,000 for being with me for a year?

So basically she performed certain services for money. Now how does that make her any different from a "professional"gal? (you know what I'm talking about! don't make me say it.)

2007-02-21 16:15:19 · 8 answers · asked by ? 2 in Family & Relationships Marriage & Divorce

I see most of the replies here state that because the lady does housework and cooks etc.

Come on now. Who are you kidding? Most women don't do nearly half of the traditional housewife duties, yet complain a whole lot more.

2007-02-22 06:17:54 · update #1

8 answers

why do you think men are sooo much better than women i have read some of your answers and they are crap. if you think someone is getting with you for the money sign a prenup it is that easy. plus if someone had to deal with you i am sure they deserve well over half!

2007-02-21 17:02:49 · answer #1 · answered by kchase 2 · 0 1

Generally, if you acquire anything prior to the marriage....it is ALL YOURS. But this may vary from state to state. There are some things that the soon to be ex-spouse can actually fight for (and sometimes get) EXAMPLE:
I want to get a life insurance policy in which my only two children would be the sole beneficiaries (I am divorced, father not in picture) and my parents being in control of finances if they are under 18. Now if I were to remarry in the future, say a good couple of years after policy is in place, and down the road something happens to me, the new spouse can take my family to court to fight my policy for control of the money. The best thing to do is have a pre-nup.

2007-02-21 16:58:00 · answer #2 · answered by Ghost Writer 3 · 0 0

A woman who is married already has a job when she says those magical words " I DO"!!!!! For instance, cooking, laundry, cleaning the house, making your bed everyday, picking up your dirty clothes off the floor, taking out the garbage, grocery shopping, so you will have that home-cooked meal every day, cleaning the toilets, taking care of you when you're sick with the flu, making that breakfast in the morning while you read the paper, washing the dishes after every meal, ironing your clothes, scrubbing the floors in your house,,,,,,, and that's a full-time job! And you don't think you should pay her? She is a professional no matter how you put it. She just does it standing up.

2007-02-21 16:51:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

well, besides being a "pro" she is also a maid, a chef, a friend, a therapist, a doctor or nurse and had to listen to all your" you know what". but i don't think after a year if you already had the money that a judge would give her half, unless you cheated or you beat her or worse. the word prenup would come in around here. if no kids, and both good jobs, most likely the ruling is split what you bought together and take what you had. if she has a good job she probably has money stashed. well if she is smart she does.

2007-02-21 16:37:41 · answer #4 · answered by dune nana 3 · 0 0

When you married the chick you has the wrong concept. This chick should have been the woman whom you promised in front of men/women and GOD to love til death do you part in sickness or in health. She is entitled too
something maybe half maybe not. Community Property Laws get YOU everytime.. A good prenup/postnup never hurts either. :)

2007-02-21 16:32:11 · answer #5 · answered by Goodfor52 3 · 0 0

It works both ways. If the woman makes a lot of money during the marriage and the man doesn't, he still gets half.

2007-02-21 16:29:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You don't sound mature enough to ask the question.

Most states gave financial credit to wives who raised the families so that they would not have nothing when divorce happened. Technically, the split happens to the assets and liability accrued during the marriage, not before.

2007-02-21 16:30:30 · answer #7 · answered by Sir Richard 5 · 0 1

Because as long as they were together they were a partnership.
Perhaps marriage certificates should read as a partnership with all the obstacles and outcomes to be written up as such. It cant be any worse than a divorce diabolical

2007-02-21 17:04:43 · answer #8 · answered by iyamacog 7 · 0 0

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