its in his contract that he wont be playing first
2007-02-21 07:26:33 · 6 answers · asked by itneverends 1 in Sports ➔ Baseball
Because last year he played first base for the Yanks.
2007-02-21 07:32:23 · answer #1 · answered by Paul Wall 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Eligibilty is based on the previous season. In Yahoo a player gains eligibility at a position after 5 games started or 10 appearances. Last year Sheffield started at least 5 games at 1st so he will be eligible there this year. If he does not play there any this year he will not be eligible there next year.
2007-02-21 18:10:36 · answer #2 · answered by subtle_betrayal 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In fantasy sports, a player is position eligible if htey play a certain number of games at a position (excluding position players pitching and pithers playing other spots.)
On stat sheets/line-up cards, it is usally the discretion of who makes them up, but they usually go by where the player tradionally plays.
NO player's contract states where they play or not play. IF the manager needs you to play Shortstop and you have the fielding ability of a sleeping turtle ... it does not matter. You will play where the coach tells you.
2007-02-21 15:38:09 · answer #3 · answered by findinglifeodd 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because he played 9 out of the 30 games he played at first base last year.
2007-02-21 15:34:39 · answer #4 · answered by Kenny 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The yankees are probably considering this for the simple reason you can't take his bat out of the lineup and he's to good of a ballplayer still to be a dh. Jiambi may be through as a yankee and Sheffeild would be a terrific answer to 1b.
2007-02-21 15:41:30 · answer #5 · answered by dinging53 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Because he can hit and you desparate to find a position for him to fit him in the lineup, if you can put up with him.
2007-02-21 15:41:36 · answer #6 · answered by swamp fox 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋