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The concept of a separation of church and state is NOT in our constitution. This derived from a personal letter written by Thomas Jefferson, and was taken out of context. The founders clearly sought to protect the church from having government views forced upon it.... not the other way around. Any thoughts?
Please check out this site:

http://www.mdfva.org/Issues/Church_n_State/SeparationChurchnStatePamphlet.html

2007-02-21 04:48:44 · 8 answers · asked by mmilner_24 3 in Politics & Government Politics

Pitchow: Exactly my point: The government cannot institute a state religion, or prohibit people from practicing their own chose.
But the government has warped this concept and places restrictions on faiths ALL THE TIME! Why is prayer not allowed in schools? Nobody wants to force kids to pray, but they should have that right!

2007-02-21 04:58:28 · update #1

8 answers

"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof."


What exactly does that mean to you? To me, this is separation of church and state.

I agree with you completely.

2007-02-21 04:53:08 · answer #1 · answered by Pitchow! 7 · 2 0

The First Amendment to the United States Constitution is a part of the United States Bill of Rights. It prohibits the federal legislature from making laws that establish a state religion or prefer a certain religion (the "Establishment Clause"), prohibit free exercise of religion (the "Free Exercise Clause"), infringe the freedom of speech, infringe the freedom of the press, limit the right to assemble peaceably, or limit the right to petition the government for a redress of grievances.

2007-02-21 10:26:21 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Wrong. This is the guy who wrote most of the constitution. Can you refute this most basic example? ;

"The purpose of separation of church and state is to keep forever from these shores the ceaseless strife that has soaked the soil of Europe with blood for centuries" James Madison.

2007-02-21 04:54:23 · answer #3 · answered by ArgleBargleWoogleBoo 3 · 1 0

The myth is based on a misconception, assiduously cultivated by some for their own reasons.

The principle originally gained traction from Protestants hostile to Catholic immigrants and the Catholic religion.

2007-02-21 05:29:02 · answer #4 · answered by American citizen and taxpayer 7 · 0 0

Your link is BS and so is your thinking, "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" Jefferson was NOT taken out of context he was clarifying his position and the courts have found this to be true

2007-02-21 04:54:41 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

The Treaty of Tripoli says that the United States is not founded on the Christian religion.

2007-02-21 04:53:56 · answer #6 · answered by tangerine 7 · 0 1

The phrase also occurs in a Supreme Court decision and is therefore held as legal precedent.

2007-02-21 04:54:05 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

No, it was a commment put into a Supreme Court decision by a known segregationist.

2007-02-21 04:53:40 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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