English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

And how were the Jews able to work together with them during their stay in Spain?

Did they have them as trading associates with the Middle East?

2007-02-20 22:48:20 · 10 answers · asked by Charles R 1 in Arts & Humanities History

ALSO HOW DID THEY GET EXPELLED?

2007-02-20 22:48:38 · update #1

10 answers

Conflict between the Jews and the Arabs is a fairly recent thing.

Most large Arab cities still have a Jewish quarter.

2007-02-20 22:58:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Spain was very strict about only Roman Catholics in their colonies. So the answer is none. Spain also expelled people who's parents had converted to Roman Catholicism, they were suspect.

2016-03-29 05:27:29 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I haven't time to check all the facts, but I have been reading something about this fairly recently.

Some of the other answers may be amusing, but they are completely misleading and ill-informed.

The Moors, so far as I am aware, were Muslims of Moroccan extraction, who invaded Southern Spain and set up shop in the area, I believe, which we would now know as Andalusia, and which includes Granada. Other important Muslim conclaves included Toledo, Cordoba and, I think, Seville.

When the Morrocans went to Spain, they went as a single-sex army of occupiers, but being red-blooded men, they soon took a shine to the predominantly Christian women, and doubtless treated them very well. With only a couple of generation, the Moors were really a part of the wider population of Spain.

Far from being barbarians, the Moors brought with them extraordinary civilisation and learning; some of it from the East, which was then far more advanced than western Christian civilisation, whatever people care to tell you.

At a time when most medieval Christian countries wallowed in mud and lived in huts, Granada (as an example) had universal education, free medical care (as bets they knew), illuminated streets (oil lamps), pavements and some of the most beautiful architecture known to mankind, and which still can be seen in all its glory in Granada, with the fabulous Alhambra Palace: one of the greatest architectural wonders of the world.

The Moors were not only extremely civilised people, they were also extremely tolerant people, who permitted people of ANY faith to practise their religion freely, and without hinderance.

In a word, they were BEACONS of civilisation.

Unfortunately, they had to contend with a deeply hostile and deeply flawed Christian church on the march, which at the height of the inquisition, resulted in terrible bloodshed and political machinations which was specifically directed against the gentle Moors and their civilised values.

Being what they were, in spite of their original armed surge against a foreign country, the Moors more or less agreed to leave Spain rather than bring violence and bloodshed, and thus came to an end one of the most beautiful periods of European history, and easily one of the most civilised.

I do not know the answer to the Jewish question, but I think that being Jewish would not have been an obstacle to the Moors, who would have wisely respected their right to co-exist and practice their own religion.

It is a fascinating subject, and one about which, if I knew more, I would happily tell you, but at least I've tried to set the record straight a little.


Edit:

P-funk seems to be confusing 500 years of history.

Here are the proper facts, which show that Spain, due to the great learning of the Islamic scholars, liberated the whole of Europe from feudalsim, squalor and ignorance, and brought the dark-ages to an end.

http://www.xmission.com/~dderhak/index/moors.htm

2007-02-21 02:01:01 · answer #3 · answered by musonic 4 · 2 2

Okay, first of all the moors were blood thirsty invaders. They took over the islander of Sicily+Sardinia, parts of Portugal, and most of the western part of Spain. Pretty much the whole plan was to change European Society and take over. Thanks to Charlemagne in the epic battles able to drive them out. Also, let you know part of the Spanish Inquistion was part of this to clean out all the invaders. As for the Jews they traded to anyone did not matter who they were. Their main goal was profit and that was it.

2007-02-21 04:04:41 · answer #4 · answered by P-Funk 2 · 0 1

Spain being a good Catholic country, did not want a bunch of foreigners, with their barbaric ways, and different beliefs, Islam, living amongst them.
The Jews 'bankrolled' the wars. Being allowed by many governments of the time with little other employment opportunities than money lending. So the Jews were fairly prosperous.

2007-02-20 22:55:32 · answer #5 · answered by Moorglademover 6 · 2 2

It's a pity Rodrigo Diaz de Bivar is not alive today with what's happening
for those of you who do not recognise the name perhap's you will know
this one El Cid

2007-02-21 07:20:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

they got expelled for bringing the Spanish economy close to total collapse,as a result of everyone rolling about laughing at their stupid hats.

2007-02-20 22:55:35 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

the moors got fought till death, the reason was they were not nice people, and got what was coming for them, after all they were the invaders.

2007-02-20 22:52:28 · answer #8 · answered by Splishy 7 · 1 1

Both of these ethnic groups were probably persecuted during the inquisition.

2007-02-20 22:59:04 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Cause they didn't belong there. They were invading another country and that is usually what happens.

2007-02-20 22:56:14 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

fedest.com, questions and answers