And anybody who wants to answer further:
How did he become King of England ?
2007-02-20 21:07:59 · 6 answers · asked by Coco32 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
He ordered the Bible to be translated into English.
The bibles they had at the time were all written in Greek.
and according to all the royalty,
"I am king, because God wanted me to be."
A mixture of Birthright and Divine Decree.
And although that WAS THE WAY people of the time spoke...
Boss... I got to agree with you.
Once it mentions in the Greek:
"and they killed his family and friends and servants, etc
they tore down his house, and sought to kill all who even
owed him money"....or something like that.....
and it was translated as:
"And they did him a great unjust..."
2007-02-20 21:17:08 · answer #1 · answered by Ron K 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The King James version of the Bible was for the time the best translation. There had been numerous other scholars who had made their own versions, but King James wanted one standard version for every English person to read. Even today traditionalists prefer this Bible, as it flows with the language of Shakespeare.
Yes, the King was Protestant, but one might view this as being a cynical move to hold power. England had gone through quite a lot of turmoil in the era going from protestant Henry VIII to catholic Mary I and back to protestant with Elizabeth I. The people wanted peace, and protestantism, the King went along to get along.
On James becoming King, it was done the old fashioned way, he got the position through birth.
2007-02-20 21:31:14 · answer #2 · answered by lanarkview 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
King James I of England was also King James VI of Scotland, and inherited the English & Scottish thrones through Henry VII & Mary Tudor.
He commisioned the writing of the English Bible which was first published in 1611. James himself was something of a scholar, and was deeply interested in the production of the Bible.
There were several English versions of the Bible available from which to draw information: Tyndale's Bible, Wycliffe's Bible, the Geneva Bible, and the Bishop's Bible.
James had Catholic sympathies, but was Protestant.
2007-02-20 22:56:26 · answer #3 · answered by jcboyle 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The translation is named after King James I as he was the king who lifted the ban on translations. Until then it had been illegal to publish a translation of the bible - punishable by death.
James VI of Scotland became James I of England on the death of Elizabeth I, who had no children. James was a close relative - a descendant of Henry VII - and therefore next in line to the English throne. He was brought up a Protestant, although his parents were both Catholics.
2007-02-20 21:34:36 · answer #4 · answered by Daniel R 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i guess as the king of england it was during his time that they do the translation of the bible to english so as the common people can understand it, and no he is not catholic but a protestant.
2007-02-20 21:15:23 · answer #5 · answered by livinhapi 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
he was protestant and it was named after him because he was the first to have the bible translated (poorly) into English so that common ppl could actually read it also not just nobility
2007-02-20 21:11:56 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋