Ye and Thee and Thou
Is this old English?
Is this how they spoke back in King James' day?
Who was King James by the way? which one?
2007-02-20 21:05:17 · 4 answers · asked by Coco32 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
How are the two different? One is in English, the other's in Latin. I think the KJV used the Textus Receptus for the NT, which wasn't around when the Vulgate reached its final form.
What style are they written in? Both are written in a pretty vulgar style, if I remember correctly. I know the KJV was, and ecclesiastical Latin is pretty vulgar to one who spends all his time reading Cicero.
Is it Old English? No. It's an early form of Modern English. Old English would be perfectly incomprehensible to you.
Is that how they spoke? Yes.
Which King James? The Sixth of Scotland and First of England.
2007-02-20 21:16:40 · answer #1 · answered by Chris A 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As Christ spoke in Aramaic, any debate between Latin, Middle English and Modern English seems a little irrelevant. The gospels were first written down in Greek anyway.
Ever heard of Chinese whispers?
2007-02-20 21:25:09 · answer #2 · answered by efes_haze 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
beleive it or not....
The King James bible is written in MODERN ENGLISH.
Old English, actually was called Anglish because it came from
the language of the Angles and the Saxons, was a Germanic
language. not German.... but was LIKE German and came from
the Germanic tribes. so a lot of OLD English words look like the
same words in German.
Middle English was influenced more by French....go figure...
2007-02-20 21:23:38 · answer #3 · answered by Ron K 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't matter about the language...All bibles are the same...
Written by men to control others.
2007-02-20 21:15:38 · answer #4 · answered by Afi 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋