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ty for your help

2007-02-20 15:23:42 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

it looks like this 0
-16

2007-02-20 15:28:53 · update #1

9 answers

Assuming you mean (16)^0:

Remember a property of exponents, that a^b*a^c = a^(b + c).

So, (-16)^1*(-16)^0 = (-16)^(1 + 0) = (-16)^1
so (-16)^0 = 1

2007-02-20 15:48:06 · answer #1 · answered by sofarsogood 5 · 0 0

if it is (-16)^0 then it is 1
if it is -(16)^0 or -16^0 it is -1
It depends on where the negative sign is
anything to the power of 0 is 1, but if you have the 16 in parenthesis or don't have parenthesis at all you do the 16^0 first and then you add the negative sign. It goes by the order of operation rules. exponents come before multiplication, but if you do the whole (-16) expression to the power of 0 it is 1.
I hope that helps

2007-02-20 23:27:52 · answer #2 · answered by shmousy636 3 · 1 0

The - sign in front of the 16 is considered to be separate from the number 16....so the correct answer would be -1 (16^0 = 1, -ve sign in front of it...so therefore -1.

2007-02-20 23:31:51 · answer #3 · answered by nerdy girl 4 · 0 0

anything to the 0 is 1(except 0)
if its -(16)^2 its -1 because it would be -(1)
if its (-16)^2 its 1

2007-02-20 23:31:32 · answer #4 · answered by climberguy12 7 · 0 0

-(16^0) = -1
(-16)^0 = 1

2007-02-20 23:31:45 · answer #5 · answered by Lady Beetle 2 · 0 0

The answer is -1. any number rasied to the zero power is 1 so you take the sign of the number and get -1.

2007-02-20 23:28:15 · answer #6 · answered by Jajisa W 1 · 0 1

anything to the power of zero is 1

2007-02-20 23:28:23 · answer #7 · answered by mnid007 4 · 0 0

I agree with everyone that the answer is always 1.

2007-02-20 23:31:31 · answer #8 · answered by Momof2 3 · 0 0

Well, my TI-84 silver edition calculator says the answer is -1.

2007-02-20 23:29:25 · answer #9 · answered by ikestrman 3 · 0 1

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