2007-02-20 13:51:07 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
STD describe more accurately what the disease is, as many people were not sure of venereal and the implications behind this word. VD used to just encompass gonorhea and syphilis. With a whole new slew of diseases they had to come up with a user friendly term. (No pun intended).
2007-02-20 14:48:32 · answer #1 · answered by Deirdre O 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would say because VD (veneral- as in vagina) might be construed as that only females have or transmit it, while STD is less gender specific-like men can have it too and its not just a female problem. Gay men can get STD's without being around any vaginas.
2007-02-20 13:57:34 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its just experts trying to lay claim to their field by rewording statements already commonly accepted. Look in any major field of study that has been around for quite some time and I gaurantee you will find such examples in each one. It is a function of language for it to change, even if the meaning doesn't really differ that much from the original.
2007-02-20 13:59:09 · answer #3 · answered by Dase 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
VD sounds so dated. You can tell how old or educated people are by their use of the terms.
2007-02-20 14:00:10 · answer #4 · answered by gus_zalenski 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It makes more sense and is clearer to stupid people or young people that don't know what venerial is, Sexually transmitted disease is pretty clear even to a 9 yr. old. right?
2007-02-20 14:00:15 · answer #5 · answered by MISS-MARY 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because stds covers more than just syphillis or other vds such as hiv, aids or herpes
2007-02-20 13:55:44 · answer #6 · answered by dixie58 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually they are now referred to as sexually transmitted infections (STI's)
2007-02-20 13:59:14 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋