2007-02-20 13:12:40 · 8 answers · asked by Shelby 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
hmmm that depends.
i can think of one situation where this MIGHT apply.
if youre cycling with the wind in your back, the friction of the wind will make you gain speed.
this only fits, if you consider the motion to be in relation to the ground, not the wind.
2007-02-20 13:19:13 · answer #1 · answered by mrzwink 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Here's the plain answer: No. Anybody who tells you otherwise has spent a little too much time away from their physics textbooks. I promise you. Why? Because friction is DEFINED as a force which OPPOSES motion. There's no two ways about it.
Now, we must remember that friction is the same force as me pushing on something. It's simply electrons between the two forces repelling in both cases. They're the same at the most basic level. So obviously for one force to always act in only one reference it can only do so if we DEFINE it as such, which we have.
When you're walking the friction between your shoes and the ground is not acting forward. The force exerted by your legs is what is moving you forward, not friction. If it weren't for friction you could glide forever until you ran into something.
That being said, it's impossible to walk without friction. Without friction we'd fall straight on our butts every time we tried to take a step. Still, it's not friction that is moving us forward.
Friction is necessary for nearly every type of movement, but not because it drives the movement. Just like a dozen is 12 because we say it is, friction always acts against motion because we say it does. Friction that is in the direction of motion isn't friction at all, it's a locomotive force.
Hope this helped.
2007-02-20 13:47:27 · answer #2 · answered by Ryan HG 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes! When you accelerate as you walk, friction is forward. When you step on the gas in your car, the friction is forward. There are plenty of examples of friction being in the direction of motion.
2007-02-20 13:27:35 · answer #3 · answered by Dennis H 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I dont think so, because from the definition of frictional force, it is a force opposing the direction of the motion.
2007-02-20 13:28:18 · answer #4 · answered by only_ y 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No,Friction is always against motion that's why it's called Friction.
2007-02-20 13:26:44 · answer #5 · answered by starjammer 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no..... newtons laws state that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction....aka for ever force, there is an equal and opposite force (assuming acceleration is 0).. .. so imagine a car moving in one direction at 600 N, they only force acting on the car is friction.. the car has to push against friction for the car to move anywhere.. so the Ff would be 600 aswell
2007-02-20 13:44:24 · answer #6 · answered by Max 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. If you think of friction just as another force you should be able to see that this would be a force that would cause continual acceleration without energy input... Or, energy output would be greater than energy input which is not possible.
2007-02-20 13:57:07 · answer #7 · answered by James H 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
hm, I don't think so.
2007-02-20 13:16:47 · answer #8 · answered by Anaksonamun 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋