Here is a scenario: A company decides to have newly constructed homes built on a land they own in January of 2006. A couple decides that they want to buy one of the homes that are to be built and signs an agreement of purchase that same month. The home is not constructed and they cannot close until December of 2006. So the couple can only have access to the home from December of 2006. Then February 2007 comes and the property tax bill for 2006 arrives. In your opinion, whose responsibility is it to pay that bill? and why? has anyone ever experienced this?
2007-02-20
10:49:04
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3 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Business & Finance
➔ Taxes
➔ Canada