If someone thinks that you owe them money from 6 years ago can they start court proceedings to claim it back?
2007-02-20 06:37:06 · 7 answers · asked by whatwhy? 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
I can't believe people come on here and say things like "yes, it's seven years" and risk giving you completely the wrong answer.
If you're in England & Wales, then the answer is six years. The clock starts at the time when you SHOULD have paid. If I lent you fifty quid, and you were supposed to pay me back on 1st June 2000, then I have to sue you (by which I mean issue my claim at court) by 31st May 2006.
If you're anywhere else then I don't know the answer, but at least I've said so rather than just pitched in with something that could cause you problems.
2007-02-20 10:30:35 · answer #1 · answered by Joe 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If someone is going to start court proceedings they will do it when the liability crystallises. For example if the liability was contingent on an event arising, then court proceedings could not start until that event took place.
So in an insurance claim for example, an employers liability insurance policy will have to pay forever into the future for asbestosis claims.
If this is a private debt between two individuals (no companies involved) then I would suspect that court proceedings would have to take place fairly soon after the debt arose if any likelihood of payment or settlement will occur.
If it is a debt between a company and an individual, then the individual will have greater rights than the company. The company will have to take it to court within 6 years to stand any chance of a settlement. An individual owed money by a company may find that 6 years is also used as a time bar, however it is likely to be more flexible.
2007-02-20 14:49:58 · answer #2 · answered by James 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No 6 years is the absolute limit. Also if they send you goods and dont ask for payment or invoice you within 6 months of the date of tender then you dont have to pay.
2007-02-20 15:17:00 · answer #3 · answered by freddiem 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
unfortunately not, the limit is 5 years for a claim in the courts
2007-02-20 14:40:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
yes if they can prove it. the limit is 7 years.
2007-02-20 14:57:47 · answer #5 · answered by D B 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes. They don't have to, but maybe they're tired of waiting.
2007-02-20 14:44:01 · answer #6 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Never ever lend money!!!
2007-02-20 14:42:23 · answer #7 · answered by MARCO 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋