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2007-02-19 19:52:52 · 4 answers · asked by chuey13th 1 in Arts & Humanities History

4 answers

They must have done - next door virtually.
The Aztecs were latecomers in Mexico. The Mayas had had their golden age by then.

2007-02-19 23:31:00 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There is some indirect evidence that the Aztecs were aware of the Mayan presence in the Yucatan. In fact, it was because of the Maya that enabled Cortez to find and defeat the Aztecs. The Maya did not help him, although a shipwrecked Spaniard years before did. This person knew a Mayan dialect and was able to act as translator for an Aztec woman who knew Nahuatl and Mayan. This is how Cortez gained entry into Tenochtitlan.

2007-02-20 04:36:02 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Well............sort of.

The "classic" period of Mayan culture was around 250 to 900 AD, while the Aztec civilisation was at its peak in the 14th, 15th and 16th centuries, so the two were separated by around 500 years.

The Mayans never really disappeared though, they just went into a bit of decline in importance and they still exist in the same location nowadays.

It is almost certain, therefore, that certain elements of the Mayans must have had contact with the Aztecs at some stage or other.

2007-02-19 20:03:38 · answer #3 · answered by the_lipsiot 7 · 0 1

Yes, the Aztecs conquer and ruled some of the Mayan territories in fact some historians think that that conquer was the end of the Mayan empire . Many Mayans and other tribes from what today is Mexico were ruled and sometimes used as slaves by the Aztecs.

2007-02-19 20:07:23 · answer #4 · answered by torreart 3 · 0 1

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