I always hear people say they got their hair did. Is that correct grammar? or is it got my hair done?

Answer 1

It's "I had my hair done", got is incorrect as is did. However, due to the fact that "hair do" is a noun (a gerrand, to be exact), it may be even more proper to say something along the lines of "I got a hair do" or "I got my hair do", therefore validating the use of the word "got" within the sentence. However in the case of "I got my hair did" the use of a gerrand probably wasn't intended and, therefore "I had my hair done" is the proper answer.

*note about Got: In short, it depends on whether or not I is a direct object (in which case, the gerrand "Hair-Do" is used) of got or Hair is a direct object of do/done.

In not so short: the use of got indicates that the subject recieved something, such as a Hair-Do. However, since the subject of this sentence ("I") did not recieve anything (their hair was the recipient of the primary action, "done", not them, and had is only a linking verb not an action verb) the use of got is inappropriate. However, if the term "Hair-Do" was meant, than the subject ("I") did infact recieve a Hair-Do ... which is an arrangement of ones hair, as opposed to their hair recieving the attention.

Also, Ain't arose toward the end of an eighteenth century period that marked the development of most of the English contracted verb forms such as can't, don't, and won't. This form of the word first appears in print in 1778. It was preceded by an't, which had been common for about a century previously. An't appears first in print in the work of Restoration playwrights: it is seen first in 1695, when William Congreve wrote I can hear you farther off, I an't deaf, suggesting that the form was in the beginning a contraction of "am not". But as early as 1696 Sir John Vanbrugh uses the form for "are not": These shoes an't ugly, but they don't fit me. At least in some dialects, an't is likely to have been pronounced like ain't, and thus the appearance of ain't is more a clarified spelling than a new verb form. In some dialects of British English, are rhymed with air, and a 1791 American spelling reformer proposed spelling "are" as er. Ain't in these earliest uses seems to have served as a contraction for both am not and are not. If you don't believe this think of it: do you say "Aren't I?" . . that it would be lengthened to "Are I not" . . .though that sounds fine enough, the final test of the validity of a contraction is the ability to remove the "not" and still have the sentence make sence. "Are I" is not grammatically correct . . . "Am I" and "Am I not" would be . . . therefore, the contraction of "Am Not" -- "Ain't" -- is the proper grammatical form here.

The idea that "Ain't isn't a word" sprang up because "Ain't" was, in 19th century American, considered a part of low-brow language (akin to Enland's cockney). The upper crust tended to use flowery sentences that over qualified themselves, thus the common belief that "Are I not" is a grammatically correct sentence (the idea of using the wrong tense when refering to oneself was inspired by the English king, who referred to himself as "we" due to the belief that "the king is England" and, therefore, representative of all its people in addition to himself). The use of "Ain't" was therefore discouraged . . . the fact that Ain't is the only modern contraction that does't resemble its base worlds (the reason the contraction "ain't" didn't evolve, like other contractions did, to reflect the changes in its base words is because "Amn't" is a very awkward word to say) coupled with its lack of use in every day language gave birth to the myth.

Answer 2

I had my hair done or I got a new hair do. No one gets their hair did except in cases of the uneducated or people purposely trashing the English language.

Answer 3

They are wrong. You are right (I got my hair done). But.. this is not enough as enough is not enough until it is enough, i.e. you have to understand why.

Verbs in English have three conjugation forms. Example:

1. Play (called present simple)
2. Played (called past simple)
3. Played (called past participle)

English also has verbs called irregular verbs:

1. Write (called present simple)
2. Wrote (called past simple)
3. Written (called past participle)

In case of DO, Do is irregular verb: Do, did, done. Therefore, the correct English should be "I got my hair done"

In English English, they use verb (to have), instead of (to get)... ( I had my hair done). Using (to get) is American English (I got my hair done)

Also, when I use the form (I got my hair done or I had my hair done), the form implies that the job was done by someone other than myself. It is kind of Passive voice, not active voice. Example (active and passive voices):

1. John painted the door (active voice)
2. The door was painted by John (passive voice)

Therefore, when you say: John got (had) the door painted, it means that he had someone to paint the door for him. Nevertheless, "I got my hair did" could be a slang. Slangs in most cases do not submit to grammar.



Everyone, please if I am wrong, please e-mail me with the right answer, or just say so.

Answer 4

I got my hair done is correct.

Answer 5

no tha'ts ebonics or whatever you call it..slang i guess...it's NOt proper grammar at all! I got my hair fixed or done..either is fine i think

Answer 6

I say, "I got a hairdo."

When people say I got my hair did, it almost sounds slang.

It is about as bad as saying "ain't", which is now in the dictionary.

Answer 7

not too sure about the people who are around you