2007-02-19 15:31:36 · 6 answers · asked by sdt3 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
For one thing, for something to be equal to something else, it has to _always_ be equal. cos(4x) is not always equal to 1.
If, however, this is an equation, and the restriction is from 0 to 2pi, then
cos(4x) = 1 implies
4x = {0, 2pi, 4pi, 6pi}
x = {0, pi/2, pi, 3pi/2}
2007-02-19 15:35:04 · answer #1 · answered by Puggy 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
because 1 = cos4x
2007-02-19 23:41:41 · answer #2 · answered by donald 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because the angle (x) has an adjacent side length of 1 and a hypotenuse length of 4, or an equivalent ratio of side lengths. go with the guy above me, he knows what he's talking about, i'm just bullshiting, from what i know from freshman geometry.
2007-02-19 23:36:29 · answer #3 · answered by hey 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
cos 4x=1
4x=arccos 1
4x=0, 2Ï, 4Ï, 6Ï etc
x=0, Ï/2, Ï, 3Ï/2, 2Ï etc
2007-02-19 23:39:11 · answer #4 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"what is the solution to cos(4x) = 1"?
2007-02-19 23:50:11 · answer #5 · answered by Theta40 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
nerds lol!
2007-02-19 23:39:09 · answer #6 · answered by Blazzzy 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋