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2007-02-19 12:50:26 · 13 answers · asked by Kimberly 6 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
As long as there is human judgment, there is human prejudice. Sightless prejudice would operate on hearing, that would be a great difference, but not any better.
The Will is positive, the Judgment is negative.
2007-02-19 12:56:41 · answer #1 · answered by Psyengine 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I tend to think prejudice would not exist without sight. I did some experiments some years ago to see how long I could go without thought, whilst observing around me with my eyes. What I found was that I wanted to keep labelling things; tree, sky, fence, car etc. I think it is habit that we have bias and judgement and prejudice as an automatic thing from just seeing that which is around us.
2007-02-23 06:19:24 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Definitely.
It is thought by our minds
The idea 'prejudice' will still exist in the mind regardless if we could experience it or not through sensation(being able to witness the experience).
How do you figure blind people know about prejudice?
Now to carefully characterize in elaborated details including accidence, extensions of what summarizes the word 'prejudice', we're going to need a careful look of concrete samples.
2007-02-25 09:02:31 · answer #3 · answered by oscar c 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Prejudice is about denouncing that which is different than you. If there were no sight, people would use the sound of a person's voice to discriminate. "Those baritones are the nastiest people."
They would use touch, and smell to discriminate. "Those sweaty people are always liars." "Those valley people really stink." Etc.
2007-02-19 20:59:50 · answer #4 · answered by ignoramus_the_great 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think prejudice is based on sensory perception and sight is not the only sense!!!
Its like a computer programmed to take decisions based on detection of motion , sound and sensations !!!
Sight \ vision is a major source, lets say 90 % , for collection of data \ perceiving external world \ making sense but its not hundred percent.
2007-02-19 21:03:06 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
If people couldn't see I feel that prejudice would transfer into hearing, discriminating against people with certain languages, tonal quailties, so on and so forth. I don't think that it would die, prejudice that is.
2007-02-19 21:28:09 · answer #6 · answered by sabishisa 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
someone would decide that they are not quite as blind as the others and therefore would consider themselves superior. Then there would be those who were more blind then the rest so they would require more assistance...and more attention then the rest. I think being prejudice is almost human nature.
2007-02-19 20:58:55 · answer #7 · answered by Laceyfromcali 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it would. It would be based on hearing, feeling, smell and still just plain ignorance. People would still think they are better than someone else and also jump to conclusions about people without knowing them first.
2007-02-20 02:27:37 · answer #8 · answered by Vince 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
prejudice will always exist no matter what for the Meier fact we are humans if you were generally speaking
2007-02-19 21:04:31 · answer #9 · answered by creek 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Nothing would change for me. I treat people according to their actions not their appearance.
2007-02-19 20:57:18 · answer #10 · answered by tim b 4 · 4⤊ 0⤋