a friend came up to me to help him with a scenario that asked "if a woman is sleeping in her bed and a man breaks into her room at 3:00Am and ties her up to her bad, wakes her up and says im going to rape u, BUT she says if you are going to rape me use a condom first" is this considered rape?
this is a question i have really been thinkin about and i jus cant answer it.
2007-02-19 04:40:31 · 5 answers · asked by hotlanta706 1 in Social Science ➔ Psychology
I think she has to say: "Please use a condom". Just saying "Use a condom" denotes a small amount of control, which the OJ jury could interpret as: "Sure, go ahead, just as long as you use a condom."
2007-02-19 05:01:36 · answer #1 · answered by raggnaar 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Of course it is still considered as a rape because first of all, the guy said, "I'm going to rape you" and then secondly, it is not her consent. She didn't ask for it. She was tied! It's obviously beyond her will.
2007-02-19 12:48:47 · answer #2 · answered by Calvin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Rape is rape-she was protecting herself-this would hold up in court
2007-02-19 12:45:21 · answer #3 · answered by Allen L 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course it's rape. She's still being forced into sexual intercourse.
2007-02-19 12:46:09 · answer #4 · answered by melissa 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it is.
2007-02-19 13:55:54 · answer #5 · answered by X-Woman 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋