2007-02-19 01:41:50 · 4 answers · asked by curious!! 2 in Social Science ➔ Economics
As long as their exports are high as well, sure.
GDP uses NET exports (exports - imports) as the variable.
2007-02-19 13:43:37 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It can be because the GDP is formed by others variables.
The formula of GDP is GDP=C+G+I+X-M, where X is export and M is import. So imagine you have C=G=I=X=5, the M can be more than the X but not much bigger than the addition of the variables like C (consume) cuz what you import, part of that, it have to be consumed. SO you could have M=15. the GDP would be 5 and M=15. Conclusion the Import amount is larger than the GDP, if the others variables are very smaller, but it would be very irealistic.
2007-02-19 10:36:03 · answer #2 · answered by dsro 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
GDP= consumer consumption+investment+gov't consumption +exports -imports
It is possible but unlikely.
2007-02-21 14:32:25 · answer #3 · answered by MSDC 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i'm no expert, but i dont see why not
i believe thats what we call a "trade deficit" and a "fiscal deficit"
however, its hard to imagine can survive for very long, given a certain amt. of time
2007-02-19 10:13:29 · answer #4 · answered by Billy 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋