According to a CSI episode an infertile rapist who left behind ejaculation couldn't be identified because it was proposed that ejaculation without any swimmers does not contain DNA. The suspect they had in custody was infertile, but then again 1 in 800 men is infertile.
Why if saliva - a product of the body - contains DNA, does not ejaculation - another product of the body - contain DNA?
2007-02-18 20:06:21 · 4 answers · asked by Wedgewood 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Biology
Saliva may contain DNA because there are cheek cells in the saliva. Cheek cells contain DNA in their nucleus. The only way that a man can have DNA in semen is if there is sperm in the semen.
2007-02-19 14:03:03 · answer #1 · answered by JLB 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Perhaps the deoxyribose nucleicacid or DNA has been damaged due to the fact that the man became infertile. That's why there is no DNA because the DNA apparently had been destroyed which creates the genetic composition of a human being.
2007-02-19 09:32:08 · answer #2 · answered by Klyde L 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The CSI scenario is pretty unlikely in my opinion. Most infertile men still produce sperm, usually they have a lower sperm count or the sperm are deformed in some way so they cannot fertilize.
Guys who've had vasectomies on the other hand don't produce sperm because the duct from the testes has been disconnected. I remember this coming up when Clinton had his encounter...
2007-02-19 10:57:17 · answer #3 · answered by Dastardly 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
challenging situation. lookup on search engines like google. this could actually help!
2014-11-13 04:49:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋