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2007-02-18 18:08:51 · 6 answers · asked by Mark Santos 1 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

6 answers

I don't thinks so. The Merchant of Venice is politically incorrect by today's standards, but it's message is a condemnation of anti-Semitism. "If you prick me, would I not bleed?", is an affirmation of Shylock's fundamental humanity, even if he is not a sympathetic character.

2007-02-18 18:24:16 · answer #1 · answered by michinoku2001 7 · 3 0

Shakespeare Anti Semitic

2016-12-29 18:08:10 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

People may think so after they read the play The Merchant of Venice...but actually after reading and studying the play in a Shakespeare class I believe he was not. The Merchant of Venice may seem like an anti-Semitic play on the surface but actually its showing how the christian characters in the play weren't really 'christian' at all! They call Shylock (the Jewish Merchant) names and mistreat him simply because he is a jew. When Shylock wants what is owed to him by Antonio (a pound of flesh which may sound gross but Antonio was the one that made the deal with Shylock) he is ridiculed for it and eventually stripped of all his wealth and condemed to die. There is a huge double standard. The christians can revenge and mistreat people all they want and its considered just but when Jews do it its considered unchristian and wicked. I believe Shakespeare was trying to show how some people of his time were actually false christians but he couldn't really make that point obvious at the time. He could have been called a blasphemer and condemed. So The Merchant of Venice really has a hidden meaning...Christians are no better than anyone else. The fact that in the beginning of the play the audience is made to hate Shylock but towards the end you feel sorry for him, tells you that Shylock wasn't necessarily the bad guy. If you have'nt read The Merchant of Venice I highly recommend it. When you do read it think of that hidden meaning and you will see exactly what I'm talking about.

2007-02-19 03:38:55 · answer #3 · answered by MalinaB 2 · 0 0

Perhaps. We can't know for certain. He lived in a time when anti-semitism ran rampant. It is a possibility that Shakespeare never encountered an actual Jew. However, the main piece of evidence in the "anti-semitic or not" debate is Merchant of Venice. On the one hand, the play paints an ugly picture of judaism. On the other, could a truly anti-semitic writer create the "if you prick me, would I not bleed" speech?

It's a complicated issue and scholars have argued both sides of it for YEARS.

2007-02-18 18:15:01 · answer #4 · answered by mugenhunt 6 · 3 0

Jewish communities were first established in England with the arrival of William the Conqueror in 1066. Although Jews soon began to play key roles in England's economic development and flourished as doctors and tradesmen, they could not escape the rampant anti-Semitism that swept Europe. Jews were subjected to vicious persecutions, including charges of the ritual sacrifice of Christian children, which culminated in their expulsion in 1290 by Edward I.

2007-02-18 18:16:32 · answer #5 · answered by ROCKY 2 · 2 0

No. thoroughly examine the play. once you notice that he has portrayed Shylock as a grasping, fallacious human first, and as a Jew secondly, pleading for empathy "... prick us, and could we not bleed?..." and gaining know-how of his lesson on the errors of his methods, you will see his element. He replaced into busting the stereotype of the day. by the way, Will Shakespeares' father replaced into imprisoned for usuary, for charging 20% on one mortgage, and 25% on yet another. some credit-card agencies fee as much as 40 six% in the united kingdom to severe-risk purchasers, in a self-pleasing prohesy of the distress of the poverty catch. issues do not replace. No-one has adequate funds.

2016-12-17 13:31:34 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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