American Law is Irrelevant to English law, and therefore incorrect, they are two totally different subjects with two totally different sets of rules.
Are they not checking which site they are on or does it coincide with the American site ?
2007-02-18
13:09:31
·
21 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
Ok for an example asking a question about which university in london for a law degree
Someone replied with western uwo which is in Canada Ontorio, and because he was the only person who answered it went to voting and got chosen as a best answer :S
Sounds ridiculous right ...
Presume people don't have enough time to read the full question, as they are racing through trying to answer as many questions as they can to accumulate as many points as they can
Then wait for it ........ the points they are awarded go towards ummmm absolutely nothing lol
2007-02-18
13:27:31 ·
update #1
The reason why it is irrelevant is because English Law has no constitution whereas American law does.
English Law is made up of Primiary Legislation (decided by government) and Delegated legislation (ministers, specialist uk groups and judge made law) and the privy council headed by The Queen.
Common law is only part of the law judge made law (Judicial precedent) which is ever changing.
Since America is not part of the EU nor does England have any goverment powers over Usa i fail to see how it is relevant.
2007-02-18
13:37:56 ·
update #2
Folks- In my answer to law questions, I tell them to check the law of the state. If other lawyers here are like me, they do not know if the asker is from the UK. I don't answer if I know it's British or Indian or Irish, for example. BTW, my state's laws are based on the laws of Spain, as are sev'l other community property states. Louisiana law is based on the French Civil Code. But-we don't know where you're from on most occasions. Obviously, we should never presume to answer foreign law questions.
2007-02-18 14:09:21
·
answer #1
·
answered by David M 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
I guess it would be for the same reasons people from the UK post questions like this on the US site.
Procedural rules between the US and Common law are decendants of the same beast and still follow the same procedural rules. But as you said the laws are different so it's like comparing apples to oranges..they both come from a tree and thats about it.
2007-02-18 14:39:13
·
answer #2
·
answered by John F 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
I am not sure how often that occurs, but I see a lot of UK people on the Answers I use, and I access it from the American site. You are correct that the laws are totally different but those answering may not realize what country someone is from. For that matter, many pay no attention to what state in the US someone is from, another big factor.
2007-02-18 13:13:50
·
answer #3
·
answered by TCSO 5
·
2⤊
1⤋
"clarrifying what's the answer to fill the hollow between the two communities." some atomic bombs on the immigrants LOL No, in basic terms joking LOL confident, i've got self assurance that there must be greater integration between the communities, i think of it relatively is the reason there are extremely some myths and anti-immigration protesters. i stay in Coventry, there is an area stated as Foleshill that's particularly complete of Asians and immigrants (criminal or no longer, i dont understand the balances) yet they simply seem to maintain to that section, they have their own severe highway so which you somewhat see them interior the city centre even nonetheless Foleshill is purely on the outskirts of the city centre. which i think of is the considerable reason, they stay and develop aspects the place their own custom is, and is fairly like a ghetto. in the event that they arrive tho this u . s . a . legally to artwork and shop the money in this u . s . a . and dont sponge off the government or make interior reach british lose their jobs then its ok yet while they arrive right here on a faux scholar visa or attempt to get right here on the lower back of a lorry then tehy must be sent lower back. im no longer attempting to be racist or maybe though yet i think of that the british government ought to close its borders to ALL remote places nationals and in all hazard cause them to placed on digital tags to ensure that they bypass away the united kingdom.
2016-10-15 23:34:21
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
Unless you limit your questions to the US only, all the questions in English come from around the world. Unless the questioner states he is asking about UK law, most Americans or other people would assume the law in question was from their own legal system.
Becareful about answering this person's question. She will send you harassing emails.
2007-02-18 13:17:34
·
answer #5
·
answered by The Big Shot 6
·
2⤊
1⤋
Our law came from English Common Law and IS PART OF our system, which goes all the way back to the Magna Carta! The only state that does not use English Common Law is Louisiana, therefore, how can you say it is irrelevant! Our law is Based on English Law!
2007-02-18 13:14:28
·
answer #6
·
answered by cantcu 7
·
0⤊
2⤋
Most people have their options set to "All English Questions" by default, and many people do not identify which country they are from,so every once in a while you'll get two countries' legal systems crossed.
I've seen it happen on the other side, too. I think Yahoo! needs to make it so it automatically identifies which country the user is from.
2007-02-18 13:13:53
·
answer #7
·
answered by amg503 7
·
2⤊
1⤋
Why do people in the UK insist on asking question regarding UK law without diferentiating between the two countries?
Also, they lump UK and US together...we have no idea what country you are in.
And no I am not going to go over and check that box ever there that says US questions only as I don't feel like it.
2007-02-18 13:14:51
·
answer #8
·
answered by Anonymous
·
3⤊
1⤋
The proper way to answer a legal question is to cite the law of the country applicable. However, since many of the users are based in America, most of the questions are answered using laws in USA.
2007-02-18 13:13:27
·
answer #9
·
answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7
·
1⤊
2⤋
It's the Indian law questions on the US yahoo that get to me. From those, I gather that India is about 50-75 behind the times, but who knows?
2007-02-18 21:16:18
·
answer #10
·
answered by tallthatsme 4
·
0⤊
1⤋