Keep in mind that Jordan, the former holder of the disputed West Bank, has long since given up her claim to the land.
2007-02-18 10:23:27 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
Enlightenment: I asked whose land it is, not whose land it isn't. Please try reading next time.
Supergenius: I have never heard any media claim "Palestinians were on Israeli land."
Shutupyourmout (sic): How could Israel have "invaded and took over Palestinian land" If there was no "Palestine" do invade. Gaza was part of Egypt, the West Bank was part of Jordan, and both attacked Israel the day Israel was born.
Maroc: No arguement about Israel is complete without the obligitory Nazi comparison. Czechoslovakia was an independent before Nazi Germany, as were Austria, Hungary, Poland, Denmark, France, Netherlands, and Belgium. Please tell me when there was ever an independent country called "Palestine."
BTW: "Palestinians" were what the Arabs called the native Jewish population, to distinguish them from European Jews. The Arabs stole the name Palestine in 1967, when Israel took the territories from Egypt and Jordan.
2007-02-19 06:45:58 · update #1
Israel is occupying land which formerly belonged to Jordan, Egypt, Syria.
Jordan, Egypt and Syria acquired these territories by confiscating them from the Palestinians - the lands were granted to the Palestinians by the UN (as they were in the case of Israel) but were confiscated by the arab neighbours before any Palestinian state was established.
Subsequently, Egypt, Syria and Jordan fought - and lost - several wars against Israel. During these wars they lost some lands, and Israel acquired them perfectly legally- by the right of conquest.
The fact that Jordan (BTW also Egypt and Syria) "gave up claim" is irrelevant- simply because they "gave back" land which did not own! (It was waaay after they lost it in war). If you think that "gift" was legal, then I can sell you the Kremlin castle, cheap too- I'm sure Putin will be happy to move out...
The only question which is to be resolved is the return or replacement of illegally confiscated land- BY EGYPT, JORDAN AND SYRIA back to the UN (which MAY give it to Palestinians). Considering that these three countries no longer possess these stolen lands, they should arrange for a suitable replacement
2007-02-18 10:38:18 · answer #1 · answered by cp_scipiom 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Israel invaded and took over Palestinian land.
May I remind you all that the Palestinians do not think that the Israelis hold a divine claim to that land. How can we justify taking their land just because our religion tells us that the Israelis have a divine claim to it? And I do not think God meant for the Israelis to drive away or slaughter all the inhabitants of that country.
You that say Israel has a claim to it because of your religion, do you also say that Israel has the right to kill thousands of innocents and displace many more just because hundreds of years ago they owned that piece of land?
2007-02-18 11:46:13 · answer #2 · answered by Ice 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
There was never any other sovereign state than Israel there for more than 3000 years. Israel is not "occupying" Anyone's land. There were very few Arabs living there until Jews started moving there. Israel has as much or more right to that land than any state has to ANY land anywhere.
Thank you for recognizing this.
2007-02-18 11:02:04 · answer #3 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
I thought the Palestinians were on Israeli land. That's what the news tells us.
2007-02-18 10:45:07 · answer #4 · answered by Jrahdel 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
its occupying the land of the palestinians.
according to you, hitler was right when he invaded boemia and moravia, because czechoslovakia had split into two, the czech republic had never existed because it didn't have the time to be recognized internationally, and slovakia had no claims over its territory.
read attentively, i'll repeat: czechoslovakia was independent, but ceased to exist. while slovakia had no claims over them, boemia and moravia had never existed as independent countries, yet the czech people existed, as do the palestinians.
sorry for taking in the nazis, it was the first example i could think of, and i was not comparing them to israel, but to your argumentation.
2007-02-18 22:18:59 · answer #5 · answered by maroc 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
no longer Anti-Semitic basically no longer as knowledgeable of the bible as you think of. there is not any such element as an previous testomony. this is one e book. Regardless you will stumble on solutions in the 1st area.yet you may desire to spend lots of time there. you opt for for 4000 years of historic previous on YA?
2016-10-02 08:49:42 · answer #6 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Uh, good question. But the anti-Israel boys dont care about history or facts, so it matters not.
2007-02-18 10:31:16 · answer #7 · answered by Daniel 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Ironically, their own!
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2007-02-18 10:54:12 · answer #8 · answered by s2scrm 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Not Israel's no matter how you cut it.
2007-02-18 10:28:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 4⤋