2007-02-18 07:56:55 · 5 answers · asked by U-98 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
or is it just an illogical assumption
2007-02-18 07:57:40 · update #1
or is it just an illogical assumption
2007-02-18 07:57:44 · update #2
As I suspected it is not provable. So it is an illogical assumption, much like the idea that parallel lines never meet, which is only true in Euclidean geometries.
2007-02-18 15:55:45 · update #3
identity property 1=1
2007-02-18 08:54:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
I cant figure out how it would be illogical
take one M&M and put it on a table
take another M&M and put it next to it
Lo and behold! you have proven 1=1 in a brilliant, edible way
2007-02-18 09:18:51 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
It is called the Reflexive Property, it states A=A.
2007-02-18 08:04:58 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
u may as well ask:
is one one?? or is it two?? or three?? one point five??
or is a car a car??
i think it would be illogical to ask this in the first place.
2007-02-18 09:30:58 · answer #4 · answered by z 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It follows immediately from the definitions.
2007-02-18 12:47:19 · answer #5 · answered by Curt Monash 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋