2007-02-17 23:52:08 · 7 answers · asked by jakeskellingtone1000 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
4
2007-02-18 02:48:36 · answer #1 · answered by Nitin T F1 fan 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
2+2=4
2007-02-18 09:18:18 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2 + 2 = 4
2007-02-18 08:09:05 · answer #3 · answered by I am myself 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Each 2 could be in base 3, or 4, or 5, or 6, or 7, or 8, or 9, or 10, or...
If we take "usual" meanings for 2 plus 2 we get:
1) 4
2) In base two, 2 is not expressed as two but as 10. Then 10 + 10 = 100.
2) 11 in base three
3) 10 in base four
4) 4 in base five
5) 4 in base six
6) 4 in base seven
7) 4 in base eight, and so on indefinitely,
2007-02-18 08:30:16 · answer #4 · answered by Sciman 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it's 4 but i can prove that it is 3
here it is:
(2+2)*0=0;
3*0=0
zero is equalent to zero so, (2+2)*0=3*0
then we divide two sides to 0, so we will get 2+2=3
2007-02-18 16:59:47 · answer #5 · answered by fenix_yldshv 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Seriously. 4
But according to a phrase in Hindi 5.
"Do aur do paanch"
2007-02-18 08:09:41 · answer #6 · answered by nayanmange 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
youre kidding
2007-02-18 08:29:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋