My ex-husband and I still own a property jointly in the UK, which is up for sale. My ex pleads poverty and has never paid a penny towards the mortgage, but he doesn't know that we know he and his new wife (who doesn't work) are spending money like water on fripperies. We're talking over £1000 on CDs, DVDs, cuddly toys, etc, but not a penny towards the mortgage. His new wife owned her house before they met and I know as her husband, my ex has matrimonial home rights in her property. My partner has had to pay my ex's share of the mortgage and it's now getting to the point where we are worried that when the property sells, there won't be enough left to discharge what my ex owes my partner. My partner wants to know if he can sue my ex for the money, and if so, if he can force a sale of my ex's wife's house. My ex has been a complete, lying b****** from the beginning - we have a mountain of evidence against him.
2007-02-17
23:37:54
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6 answers
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asked by
Specsy
4
in
Family & Relationships
➔ Marriage & Divorce
Actually my partner DID have to pay this money for my ex, as if he hadn't, the property would have been repossessed and both my ex and I would have gone bankrupt. At one point my ex expressed the hope that this would happen. The question is not whether my partner can recover his money from my ex, which my ex has already acknowledged he owes, but whether my partner can force a sale of his matrimonial home to recover the money if that becomes necessary?
2007-02-17
23:55:02 ·
update #1