could it be said that Prussia of Frederick II had made Silesia a vassal state?

Question

how so or not so?

just off topic, arent all powers who have strong military, dont they always try and make slaves out of other people by this way?
resources of area go to industry and make products "cheap" and the workers in that colony or vassal area what have you get a thin slice of the pie that they produced with the technology of the more industialised state?

any more clarification on this topic appreciated.

WITH ALL DUE RESPECT TO THE FIRST ANSWER, PLEASE DONT GIVE ME ANYMORE "ROBOTIC" ANSWERS!
I AM WANTING CLARIFICATION ON AN IDEA.

Answer 1

You're probably right in your musings about the typical pattern of imperialist exploitation of weaker peoples. But, be that as it may ...

Yes, Frederick the Great did of course turn most of Silesia (he did not grab quite all of it from the Austrians) into a "vassal state".

But I don't think that you should assume that the Prussian takeover was unwelcome to the Silesians.

By the time of the Prussian takeover, the population of Silesia was a mixture of the old Slavic inhabitants and the more recently arrived Germanic immigrants. You might think that, therefore, a takeover by a "purely" Germanic power like Prussia would be resented by the Slavs in Silesia. But, in reality, those Silesian Slavs had in any case been subject to another Germanic power, Austria, for a long time. So, from a racial point of view, it probably did not matter much to the Slavs in Silesia whether there bosses were Prussian-Germans or Austrian-Germans.

But one big difference between Austria and Prussia that made many Silesians welcome the Prussian takeover was that Prussia was Protestant, whereas Austria was firmly Catholic. Religion still mattered enormously in those days, and the great majority of Silesians were Lutheran Protestants, just as the Prussians were.

Beyond that, there seems little doubt that the Silesian economy benefited under Prussian rule, so the standard of living increased faster. This happened because [a] the Prussians did indeed "exploit" Silesia, but that involved building up its economy; [b] Protestantism was everywhere more successful in promoting and developing trade and industry than was Catholicism; [c] Prussian administration was efficient, whereas Hapsburg administration was inefficient.

Here are a couple of quotes from the Wikipedia article given as a source: -

"In 1740, the annexation of Silesia by King Frederick II (the Great) of Prussia was welcomed by many Silesians, not only by Protestants or Germans. "

"The Seven Years' War (1756-1763) confirmed Prussian control over most of Silesia, and the Prussian Province of Silesia became one of the most loyal provinces of Prussia."

Note that "most loyal".

So, yes, vassals for sure. But happy vassals.

Answer 2

Desiring the prosperous Austrian province of Silesia, Frederick declined to endorse the Pragmatic Sanction of 1713, a legal mechanism to ensure the inheritance of the Habsburg domains by Maria Theresa of Austria. He invaded Silesia the same year he took power, using as justification an obscure treaty from 1537 between the Hohenzollerns and the Piast dynasty of Brieg (Brzeg). The ensuing First Silesian War (1740–1742), part of the War of the Austrian Succession (1740–1748), resulted in Frederick conquering the province (with the exception of Austrian Silesia). Austria attempted to recover Silesia in the Second Silesian War (1744–1745), but Frederick was victorious again and forced Austria to adhere to the previous peace terms. Prussian possession of Silesia gave the kingdom control over the Oder River.
It is possible that Frederick's motives were pecunary but the pressing need in his view was to consolidate his fragmented lands into a single unit. The gains in income from the "enslaved" population were a bonus. In this area of the world "Lebensraum" has always been a major factor in conflicts between nations.

Answer 3

Sorri.I an not Histori.