I am dating this woman.Her ex is out of the picture.She told me today that her ex is a co-signer on her home.Does that make her ex as part owner.Thank you
2007-02-17 03:14:36 · 11 answers · asked by hockey_fan_two 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
Yes.
2007-02-17 03:17:32 · answer #1 · answered by janicajayne 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
There's a difference between being a co-signer on a loan and being on a deed. Either way, she needs to get it sorted out sooner rather than later. If she has a copy of the deed, she can see if his name is on it. If it is, she should probably talk to a lawyer because this could get messy. If he's only on the mortgatge loan, she should refinance, which might be tricky for her since there was a reason she needed a co-signer in the first place. Whatever you do, DO NOT co-sign on any loans for her, especially a mortgage!
2007-02-17 11:25:14 · answer #2 · answered by CHBN 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can find this information out yourself. It is public record. All you need to do is go to your county/ state registry of deeds. you might not even need to go there since most are on-line now. There is no such thing as a co-signer on a mortgage. It doesn't matter if he did sign the mortgage. The only thing that matters is if he is on the deed. If he is "out of the picture", their divorce case, if they were married, is also public record and you can look at the case. If they were not married and his name is on the deed then, yes, he does own the property. The deed will also usually tell you how they hold title. If they were/are married they commonly hold title as "tenants by the entirety." This means that upon the death of one spouse, the entire interest goes to the survivor.
2007-02-17 11:25:56 · answer #3 · answered by Mark B 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The settlement in the divorce papers is the final authority.... even if the home is in both names, if the divorce names her as sole owner, then she is sole owner. However, to make that positive and clear up the messy paperwork should she die, and you marry her, she should have the deed transferred into her name and she can do so by either seeing an attorney, or calling the county and asking what legal documents she need to bring to have the house listed as her sole property.... every state differs.
2007-02-17 11:44:13 · answer #4 · answered by April 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
If she defaults, he is responsible. Perhaps she can request that he sign a quick claim deed. Thus removing his name from the property. However, before anything, I would check to see what the tax assessor's records show via the county web page.
At any rate, this seems to be going a bit far for one who is merely dating.
2007-02-17 11:24:28 · answer #5 · answered by iyamacog 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no rather he is another responsible party. A quit claim deed might not help if he is on the loan as lenders have rules separate from Title etc. Best advice is for her to secure a quit claim then refinance alone
2007-02-17 11:40:23 · answer #6 · answered by tp3bop 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If he only co-signed but didnt live on the property then its fine, because it would mean if she defaults on payments-the mortgage company can come after him. If he lived on the property and made payments she can have a problem.
2007-02-17 11:35:34 · answer #7 · answered by Mean Carleen 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes he is, unless she got the house in the divorce settlement or she can get the bank to remove his name and that is going to be difficult because all the bank cares about is having someone that they can get their money from.
2007-02-17 11:34:15 · answer #8 · answered by angel1 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It depends on exactly what documents his name is on. But I seriously have to wonder why YOU are concerned about it.
2007-02-17 11:18:23 · answer #9 · answered by kp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No only means that when she fails to pay the payment he owes it.
2007-02-17 11:24:55 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋