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It doesnt seem like he is kind to either of his women in hamlet. What do you think? Elaborate. I'm really kind of walking the line on this one, i'm torn.

2007-02-16 21:20:15 · 9 answers · asked by Chris W 1 in Arts & Humanities Books & Authors

9 answers

It's his characters talking, not him.

2007-02-16 21:23:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

he's horrible to Ophelia and Gertrude, absolutely, and while it's certainly important to remember that it's fictional characters, it does certainly seem to most readers that Hamlet is so intensely personal that the character *must* be at some level a stand-in for the author himself.

If we take this assumption, we can certainly conclude that it is fair to assume that Shakespeare probably treated many women in his life like donkey eggs. But does that make him a misogynist - or just a person who is badly adjusted to interpersonal relationships? Something to look at is Hamlet's overwhelming remorse, sadness and anger after Ophelia dies. While it certainly doesn't do her any good, his grief when he sees the funeral procession certainly seems genuine, as if he's suddenly woken up to the fact that he can't ever take back being a jerk. The "get thee to a nunnery scene" seems to be more about Hamlet than Ophelia; lashing out at her because he's hurt that her loyalties are still partially with Polonius, who Hamlet distrusts.

Certainly if you look at the other plays you see a wide variety of very strong and intelligent women (Rosalind, Viola, Juliet, etc) as well as other Ophelia types who are clearly shown to be unjustly victimized emotionally by the men in their lives (Hero in "much ado about Nothing" and Helena in "All's well that ends well" are some examples.)

So maybe it depends on your definition of misogynist. I would say someone who doesn't know how to behave or interact with women is different than someone who hates them. does that help you pick which side of the fence you're on?

2007-02-16 21:58:49 · answer #2 · answered by lalabee 5 · 1 0

Hamlet is a tragedy where different characters go through different occurrences. Whether they are men or women, is immaterial for the storyline. (Remember that the first victim of the play is a man, Hamlet's father, and then Polonius dies such a stupid senseless death). So, one cannot really attribute misogyny to Shakespeare based on Hamlet. In fact, you can't call anyone a misogynist based on what he writes, because it may be very far from his true convictions.

2007-02-17 04:45:48 · answer #3 · answered by alsvalia_jackson 3 · 0 0

Kind? What's "kind"? His mother waited about a MONTH before she married her dead husband's BROTHER, for heaven's sake. Notice that when Hamlet finally confronts her with her misdeeds, she doesn't argue with him at all.

As for Ophelia...she's just collateral damage in the war between Hamlet and Claudius. It's unfortunate, and she seems like a sweet kid, but I don't think that Shakespeare -- or Hamlet -- are being unfair or unduly harsh. Bear in mind that Ophelia -- through no fault of her own -- appears to Hamlet (in the post "To be or not to be..." encounter) as an AGENT of Claudius and Polonius. She's there to SET HIM UP, period. Imagine how this impacts Hamlet; to have the one person in all of Elsinore (with the possible exception of Horatio) that he thought he could TRUST turn on him like that.

Shakespeare's no misogynist. I think he has a great deal of empathy for both of the main women in "Hamlet;" they are victims of circumstances far beyond their control.

2007-02-17 05:04:52 · answer #4 · answered by shkspr 6 · 0 0

You can't say he is a misogynist based on one play....look at many other plays full of strong female characters including Twelfth Night. But he made Ophelia a very sympathetic character if you are just looking at Hamlet. Just because she killed herself does not mean that he sees all women as weak...he saw her as a character that was very pivotal to the entire play, and her impossible circumstances led to her suicide. She helped shape Hamlet's own tragedy...she was a means to an end. As for the Queen, well, a play needs its fair share of bad guys or girls just as it needs its sacrificial lambs.
It was a tragedy....therefore MOST of the characters including the main character were weak; sex had nothing to do with it. Now if you wanted to talk about Hamlet himself, perhaps you could accuse him of misogyny....but did he really HATE all women on principle? I don't have any idea. You would have to make too many assumptions. But certainly not Shakespeare himself. Dude's mind was a bit too far advanced for that sort of thing. Unless you believe that all men are misogynists because they live in world of uneven power distribution.

There was madness throughout the play, both male and female characters encompassed madness. It was a play about the madness of modern man. That it why it is so relevant today; civilization and the plethora of choices involved in civilization is madness.

It is a brilliant play and I am not into feminist reinterpretations of everything....I already know that women are oppressed, thank you very much (though I did my fair share of feminist interpretations of Shakespeare in college, I admit).

2007-02-16 21:50:36 · answer #5 · answered by teddy 2 · 1 0

No. You have to look at the social context of the times. Women weren't allowed to act in theaters and men played the part of women. Those were the circumstances. The times were such that women were considered weak and delicate flowers. So Shakespeare cannot be blamed for what was a normal way of thinking in his days.
Also, you cannot base your idea of an author's opinion towards women on one play alone. There are other plays with strong, independent women--like Olivia in "Twelfth Night", who is absolutely her own mistress, very independent, not needing any man, she is the one who chooses and not the one who is chosen.

2007-02-16 23:08:00 · answer #6 · answered by Valeria M. 5 · 1 0

That note is thrown round through feminists too regularly it has almost lost all which means. All you need to do is disagree with or discuss a flaw in the rantings of a thorough feminist and that one way or the different makes you a "misogynist". @different solutions: basically because he grow to be suggested as a misogynist would not advise it is actual.

2016-12-04 07:07:54 · answer #7 · answered by gnegy 4 · 0 0

Ophelia is portrayed as weak - ending up in madness, madness being a way of representing feminine weakness and fragility. Gertrude falls prey to her desires and forgets her duty to her husband - her will is weak and she is far from being rational.

2007-02-16 21:50:17 · answer #8 · answered by Analyst 7 · 0 1

No.

2007-02-16 21:48:06 · answer #9 · answered by revjohnfmcfuddpucker 4 · 0 0

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