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2007-02-16 15:01:05 · 6 answers · asked by Jose R 6 in Politics & Government Other - Politics & Government

Innnocent of a crime for being innocent of a crime.

2007-02-16 15:12:14 · update #1

6 answers

Yes.

2007-02-16 15:04:24 · answer #1 · answered by xcheerxchickx24 1 · 0 1

The innocent has to be blamed for his innocence because he is not exempted from law. Everybody must be presumed to know the law though it might be hard because everybody will just cite being innocent for committing a wrongdoing.

2007-02-16 23:05:59 · answer #2 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0 0

Yes it happens all the time. A person is ignorant to the laws.. meaning they don't know they are breaking a law... then they do something and get charged.

2007-02-20 15:17:04 · answer #3 · answered by BeachBum 7 · 0 0

Yes.

2007-02-16 23:05:49 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes sometimes not knowing something does not make it okay.especially when it comes to the law, most is common sense.

2007-02-16 23:05:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

huh? innocent for being innocent? unless they are faking it, being innocent means you just don't know. what's to fault anyone? i don't understand your question.

2007-02-16 23:06:43 · answer #6 · answered by blackjack432001 6 · 0 0

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