Say if you could scare someone to death without touching or pointing anything at them could it be classed as murder or manslaughter, in the uk or us?
2007-02-16 12:45:25 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
If you go out with the intent on killing someone then that is murder whether you have touched that person or not.
2007-02-16 12:49:51 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Hi Hades,
In UK law the requirement for murder is causing death by an act with the intent to cause grievous bodily harm or to kill.
If death is caused but no intent can be shown then it is manslaughter.
If you sneak up behind someone and shout boo and that person dies of a heart attack it is manslaughter at least, even if you were unaware of the heart condition. You take your victim as you find him in UK law.
2007-02-17 11:01:52 · answer #2 · answered by LYN W 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its a bit of a strange one this,and i would think impossible to prove that there was any intent.
But here in the Westcountry there was such an incident only last year,and unfortunately a nice man died.
For several months he and his wife were been terrorised by a gang of youths,they shouted abuse and threw things at his home.
He reported this on several occasions to the police, who basically did nothing as when they did turn up the gang just ran off.
Then one night the gang started again and he went out to tell them off,during the heat of the moment he had a severe heart-attack and died.
The gang were later caught and brought in for questioning,they all walked away scot free.
This caused outrage in the mans community,but the police said they could'nt proove any intent so there was no charge.
So in away they scarred the man to death and did'nt even get a police caution,they got away with murder.
2007-02-17 16:53:46 · answer #3 · answered by Tony 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it's murder.
The common law definition is the killing of human being with mailce, and without justification or mitigation. Method is not part of the defintion. The typical malice is the INTENT to kill.
So, if with the intent to kill, and without justification, person A, person B rigs up a device to scare B into a fatal heart attack, which does, in fact, bring about B's death, it's murder.
2007-02-17 05:49:17 · answer #4 · answered by tallthatsme 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No that is not murder. It might be involuntary manslaughter so like if you knew the person had a heart condition and you intentionally scared them trying to hurt them physically.
2007-02-20 14:47:11 · answer #5 · answered by BeachBum 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Scaring someone amounts to Grave Threats as defined in the Penal Law. It is not murder and manslaugther because there is no death.
2007-02-16 20:51:13 · answer #6 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you intentionally scared someone to death, that is murder. It you had no reason to expect they would be scared to death, it probably doesn't even qualify as manslaughter.
2007-02-16 21:59:32 · answer #7 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It would be a premeditated act aimed at causing death.
I don't know how the law would view it( as in is there a law or a sub clause of a law that actually mentions it)
Still to be found guilty there has to be evidence. e.g. A written document containg specific references to scaring someone to death, or witnesses who can provide good testimoney that will stand up in court.
2007-02-16 21:00:48 · answer #8 · answered by noeusuperstate 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you intended to scare them to death probably.
2007-02-17 18:19:19 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It could be wrongful death. Depends on what you did.
2007-02-16 20:50:33 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋