A friend received a document informing him that his ex got a lien on his assets because of non payment of part of divorce settlement. According to my friend his obligations have been fulfilled and he's got proof of this. No prior notice by my friend's ex was given that he owed her anything prior to him receiving lien notice. What interests me is, how is it possible that someone can put a lien on one's assets without notifying the person whose assets they file the lien against? Shouldn't my friend have been given the opportunity to prove he fulfilled all his obligations towards his ex before a lien was placed on his assets?
2007-02-16
03:26:56
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5 answers
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asked by
iwannaknow
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
That's what troubles me...according to him, he never received any notification to appear in court or that any procedings were going on. He's really depressed about this, because he doesn't have any money to start another legal battle.
2007-02-16
03:47:36 ·
update #1